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UPSC Prelims 2021 General Studies Paper I

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The UPSC exam is one of India’s most difficult exams to pass, but it’s not impossible if you use the combination of hard work, appropriate strategy, and efforts directed in the right way. This section offers UPSC Prelims solved previous year’s question papers. It will give you an idea of what to expect in the examination and how to cover the topics. The UPSC Prelims are divided into two parts: Paper I and Paper II, which are held on the same day. This is an objective paper with 100 multiple-choice questions to complete in two hours. Each question is worth two points. For each incorrect response, 0.66 points will be deducted as negative marks. 


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1. Water can dissolve more substances than any other liquid because
(a) it is dipolar in nature 
(b) it is a good conductor of heat 
(c) it has a high value of specific heat 
(d) it is an oxide of hydrogen

Answer: (a)

Explanation: Water is a “universal solvent” as it dissolves more substances than any other liquid. There are hydrogen bonds between the water molecules, due to which these molecules are not completely independent of each other. This allows the water molecule to become attracted to many other different types of molecules.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

2. With reference to street lighting, how do sodium lamps differ from LED lamps? 
(1) Sodium Lamps produce light in 360 degrees but it is not so in the case of LED lamps. 
(2) As street lights, sodium lamps have a longer lifespan than LED lamps. 
(3) The spectrum of visible light from sodium lamps is almost monochromatic while LED lamps offer significant color advantages in street lighting.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below: 
(a) 3 only 
(b) 2 only 
(c) 1 and 3 only 
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

Explanation:  LED chips are installed on a circuit board, they can only illuminate a 180-degree area. The lifespan of an LED light is much superior to that of a standard incandescent bulb. A typical LED light has a lifespan of 50,000 hours. LED light is made up of many wavelengths, it is polychromatic rather than monochromatic. 
Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

3. The term ‘ACE2’ is talked about in the context of 
(a) genes introduced in the genetically modified plants 
(b) development of India’s own satellite navigation system 
(c) radio collars for wildlife tracking 
(d) spread of viral diseases

Answer: (d)

Explanation: ACE2 is called angiotensin-converting enzyme 2. It’s an enzyme that breaks down the bigger protein angiotensinogen to produce tiny proteins that then regulate cell processes. The SARS-CoV-2 virus attaches to ACE2 using the spike-like protein on its surface. As a result, ACE2 serves as a receptor for the COVID-19 virus.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

4. Bisphenol A (BPA), a cause of concern, is a structural/key component in the manufacture of which of the following kinds of plastic? 
(a) Low-density polyethylene 
(b) Polycarbonate 
(c) Polyethylene terephthalate 
(d) Polyvinyl chloride

Answer: (b)

Explanation: Bisphenol A (BPA) is a chemical that is manufactured in huge quantities for use in polycarbonate plastics. It is used in a variety of products, including food and beverage packaging, compact discs, impact-resistant safety equipment, and medical devices.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

5. ‘Triclosan’, considered harmful when exposed to high levels for a long time, is most likely present in which of the following? 
(a) Food preservatives 
(b) Fruit-ripening substances 
(c) Reused plastic containers 
(d) Toiletries

Answer: (d)

Explanation: Triclosan is an antibacterial chemical having a lipophilic structure. It’s a bacterial reduction or prevention component found in a variety of consumer items. It is found in antibacterial soaps, body washes, toothpaste, cosmetics, etc. 
Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

6. Which one of the following is a reason why astronomical distances are measured in light-years? 
(a) Distances among stellar bodies do not change 
(b) Gravity of stellar bodies does not change 
(c) Light always travels in a straight line 
(d) Speed of light is always the same.

Answer: (d)

Explanation: A light-year is a distance traveled by a beam of light in one year. Since the speed of light is constant throughout the cosmos and is known to have excellent precision, astronomical distances are measured in light-years.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

7. We adopted parliamentary democracy based on the British model, but how does our model differ from that model? 
(1) As regards legislation, the British Parliament is supreme or sovereign but in India, the power of the Parliament to legislate is limited. 
(2) In India, matters related to the constitutionality of the Amendment of an Act of the Parliament are referred to the Constitution Bench by the Supreme Court.

Select the correct answer using the code given below: 
(a) 1 only 
(b) 2 only 
(c) Both 1 and 2 
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a)

Explanation: Parliamentary sovereignty is where parliament is superior to the executive and judicial branches of government and has the power to adopt or repeal any law. The Indian Parliament is neither supreme nor sovereign.  The Supreme Court can refer the matter of the constitutionality of an amendment act to its constitutional bench. However, It is not mandatory. 
Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

8. With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements: 
(1) N. Gopalaswamy Iyengar Committee suggested that a minister and a secretary be designated solely for pursuing the subject of administrative reform and promoting it. 
(2) In 1970, the Department of Personnel was constituted on the recommendation of the Administrative Reforms Commission, 1966, and this was placed under the Prime Minister’s charge.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 
(a) 1 only 
(b) 2 only 
(c) Both 1 and 2 
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

Explanation: While recommending a restructuring of the Central Secretariat in 1949, the Gopalaswami Ayyangar Committee advised that a Department be allocated under Secretary’s charge and a Ministry be allocated under a Minister’s charge.
The Department of Personnel was established in the Cabinet Secretariat in 1970. As the Prime Minister is in charge of the Cabinet Secretariat, we can say that it was placed under the PM’s Charge.
Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

9. ‘Right to Privacy’ is protected under which Article of the constitution of India? 
(a) Article 15 
(b) Article 19 
(c) Article 21 
(d) Article 29

Answer: (c)

Explanation: In Justice K. S. Puttaswamy Vs Union of India, a nine-judge bench of the Supreme Court unanimously concluded that under Article 21, Indians have a constitutionally guarded fundamental right to privacy that is a critical aspect of life and liberty.
Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

10. Consider the following statements: 
(1) In India, there is no law restricting the candidates from contesting in one Lok Sabha election from three constituencies. 
(2) In the 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies. 
(3) As per the existing rules, if a candidate contests in one Lok Sabha election from many constituencies, his/her party should bear the cost of bye-elections to the constituencies vacated by him/her in the event of him/her winning in all the constituencies.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 
(a) 1 only 
(b) 2 only 
(c) 1 and 3 
(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

Explanation: One candidate can run in a maximum of two constituencies, according to Section 33(7) of the RPA. Devi Lal, the deputy chief minister of Haryana, ran for three Lok Sabha seats in 1991 — Sikar, Rohtak, and Ferozepur —  but lost all three. The Election Commission of India covers the costs of by-elections.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

11. The vegetation of the savannah consists of grassland with scattered small trees, but extensive areas have no trees. The forest development in such areas is generally kept in check by one or more or a combination of some conditions. Which of the following are such conditions?
(1) Burrowing animals and termites
(2) Fire
(3) Grazing herbivores
(4) Seasonal rainfall
(5) Soil properties

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 4 and 5
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 5

Answer: (c)

Explanation: Forest development depends on Grazing intensity, which helps in keeping forests in check.  Bush fires warm the soil and reduce the amount of leaf litter, allowing sunlight to enter. Seasonal rainfall creates a balance. Furthermore, Soil Properties have an impact on the type of vegetation, but they don’t help to keep it in check once it’s established.
Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

12. With reference to the water on the planet Earth, consider the following statements: 
(1) The amount of water in the rivers and lakes is more than the amount of groundwater. 
(2) The amount of water in polar ice caps and glaciers is more than the amount of groundwater.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 
(a) 1 only 
(b) 2 only 
(c) Both 1 and 2 
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)

Explanation: Groundwater has 0.62 percent water, while lakes and rivers contain 0.0171. The water content of polar ice caps and glaciers is 2%, while it is 0.62 percent in groundwater. 
Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

13. Consider the following statements: 
(1) Moringa (drumstick tree) is a leguminous evergreen tree 
(2) Tamarind tree is endemic to South Asia 
(3) In India, most of the tamarind is collected as minor forest produce 
(4) India exports tamarind and seeds of moringa 
(5) Seeds of moringa and tamarind can be used in the production of biofuels

Which of the statements given above are correct? 
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 
(b) 3, 4 and 5 
(c) 1, 3 and 4 
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 5

Answer: (b)

Explanation:  Moringa isn’t related to the legume family. Tamarind is a leguminous tree and is native to tropical Africa. It is not found in South Asia. Tamarind is harvested as a minor forest product. India is a major supplier of tamarind and moringa seed, both of which can be used to make biofuel.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

14. The black cotton soil of India has been formed due to the weathering of 
(a) Brown forest soil 
(b) Fissure volcanic rock 
(c) Granite and schist 
(d) Shale and limestone

Answer: (b)

Explanation: Weathering, basalt rock, and volcanic rocks all contribute to the formation of black soil. Other rocks, on the other hand, lack the qualities found in black soil.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

15. With reference to recent developments regarding ‘Recombinant Vector Vaccines’, consider the following statements: 
(1) Genetic engineering is applied in the development of these vaccines 
(2) Bacteria and viruses are used as vectors

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 
(a) 1 only 
(b) 2 only 
(c) Both 1 and 2 
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a)

Explanation: Vaccines use genetic engineering to create a virus that is similar to the one for which the vaccine is being developed. Only bacteria are used as vectors to create the vaccine.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

16. In the context of hereditary diseases, consider the following statements: 
(1) Passing on mitochondrial diseases from parent to child can be prevented by mitochondrial replacement therapy either before or after in vitro fertilization of the egg. 
(2) A child inherits mitochondrial diseases entirely from the mother and not from the father.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 
(a) 1 only 
(b) 2 only 
(c) Both 1 and 2 
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a)

Explanation: The mitochondrial replacement therapy can be performed before or after in vitro fertilization of the egg. Maternal spindle transfer and pronuclear transfer are two mitochondrial replacement procedures. Mostly, primary mitochondrial disease is a genetic condition that can be inherited. A child inherits two genes, one from the mother and one from the father, in pairs. 
Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

17. Bollgard I and Bollgard II technologies are mentioned in the context of 
(a) Clonal propagation of crop plants 
(b) Developing genetically modified crop plants 
(c) Production of plant growth substances 
(d) Production of bio-fertilizers

Answer: (b)

Explanation: Bollgard I and Bollgard II are used for genetically modified crop plants, such as BT cotton. 
Therefore, the correct answer is (b)

18. In a pressure cooker, the temperature at which the food is cooked depends mainly upon which of the following?
(1) Area of the hole in the lid 
(2) Temperature of the flame 
(3) Weight of the lid

Select the correct answer using the code given below: 
(a) 1 and 2 only 
(b) 2 and 3 only 
(c) 1 and 3 only 
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a)

Explanation: The wider hole will increase the amount of steam that evaporates, resulting in a lower temperature. The temperature inside will rise with the temperature of the flame. The temperature inside the pressure cooker has nothing to do with the weight of the lid.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

19. Consider the following: 
(1) Bacteria 
(2) Fungi 
(3) Virus 

Which of the above can be cultured in an artificial/synthetic medium? 
(a) 1 and 2 only 
(b) 2 and 3 only 
(c) 1 and 3 only 
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a)

Explanation: Fungi and Bacteria can be grown in an artificial medium. Unlike bacteria and fungi, viruses require a living host to grow.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

20.  Consider the following statements: 
(1) Adenoviruses have single-stranded DNA genomes whereas retroviruses have double-stranded DNA genomes. 
(2) Common cold is sometimes caused by an adenovirus whereas AIDS is caused by a retrovirus.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 
(a) 1 only 
(b) 2 only 
(c) Both 1 and 2 
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)

Explanation: Adenovirus genomes are double-stranded, whereas Retrovirus genomes are single-stranded DNA genomes. Adenoviruses can sometimes produce a common cold, while retroviruses cause AIDS.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

21. Consider the following statements: 
(1) ‘Right to the City’ is an agreed human right and the UN-Habitat monitors the commitments made by each country in this regard. 
(2) ‘Right to the City’ gives every occupant of the city the right to reclaim public spaces and public participation in the city. 
(3) ‘Right to the City’ means that the State cannot deny any public service or facility to the unauthorized colonies in the City.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 
(a) 1 only 
(b) 3 only 
(c) 1 and 2 
(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

Explanation: It is a universally acknowledged human right. UN organizations are responsible for monitoring the implementation.
The right includes being able to fully enjoy the city and its public places while adhering to sustainability and social justice values.
Unauthorized Colonies are a type of unplanned housing and the state has the authority to deny any public service or amenities.
Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

22. With reference to India, consider the following statements: 
(1) Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such accused is locked up in a police station, not in jail. 
(2) During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 
(a) 1 only 
(b) 2 only 
(c) Both 1 and 2 
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)

Explanation: The custody of the court is referred to as judicial custody mentioned in Section 167 of the Code of Criminal Procedure. Police custody differs from judicial custody where the police can request 15 days for interrogation and investigation while the accused is in police custody.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

23. With reference to India, consider the following statements: 
(1) When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, parole cannot be denied to such prisoner because it becomes a matter of his/her right. 
(2) State Governments have their own Prisoners Release on Parole Rules.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 
(a) 1 only 
(b) 2 only 
(c) Both 1 and 2 
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)

Explanation: The convict cannot demand parole as a matter of right. It is granted by the court in recognition of a convict’s good behavior. Each state holds its set of parole regulations. In the Covid- 19 epidemic, criminals serving sentences of up to 7 years were granted emergency parole in 2020.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

24. At the national level, which ministry is the nodal agency to ensure effective implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006? 
(a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change 
(b) Ministry of Panchayati Raj 
(c) Ministry of Rural Development
(d) Ministry of Tribal Affairs

Answer: (d)

Explanation: The Forest Rights Act (FRA), enacted in 2006, recognizes tribal communities’ rights to forest resources for basic needs. The Ministry of Tribal Affairs is the key institution for ensuring that it is implemented effectively.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

25. A legislation which confers on the executive or administrative authority an unguided and uncontrolled discretionary power in the matter of the application of law violates which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India? 
(a) Article 14 
(b) Article 28 
(c) Article 32 
(d) Article 44 

Answer: (a) 

Explanation: Article 14 of the Constitution ensures equality before the law. Article 14 is violated by the legislation that confers on the executive or administrative authority an unguided or uncontrolled discretionary power in the matter of the application of the law. 
Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

26. Which one of the following in Indian policy is an essential feature that indicates that it is federal in character? 
(a) The independence of the judiciary is safeguarded. 
(b) The union Legislature has elected representatives from constituent units. 
(c) The Union Cabinet can have elected representatives from regional parties. 
(d) The Fundamental rights are enforceable by Courts of Law.

Answer: (a) 

Explanation: Federalism is a setup of governance in which two levels of government share control of the same region. Between these tiers, an independent judiciary serves as an umpire to maintain balance. 
Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

27. Which of the following best defines the term ‘State’? 
(a) A community of persons permanently occupying a definite territory independent of external control and possessing an organized government. 
(b) A politically organized people of a definite territory possessing the authority to govern them, maintain law and order, protect their natural rights and safeguard their means of sustenance. 
(c) A number of persons who have been living in a definite territory for a very long time with their own culture, tradition, and government. 
(d) A society permanently living in a definite territory with a central authority, an executive responsible to the central authority, and an independent judiciary.

Answer: (a) 

Explanation: The term “state” refers to a politically systematized society that is governed by an independent government inside a defined territory and is not subject to external influence.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a). 

28. With reference to the Indian judiciary, consider the following statements: 
(1) Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit and act as a Supreme Court judge by the Chief Justice of India with the prior permission of the President of India. 
(2) A High Court in India has the power to review its own judgment as the Supreme Court does.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 
(a) 1 only 
(b) 2 only 
(c) Both 1 and 2 
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

Explanation: Article 128 of the Constitution says that the Chief Justice of India can any time, seek any retired judge of a Supreme Court to sit and act as a Supreme Court Judge, with the President’s prior agreement. Article 226 of the Constitution allows the Supreme Court to review its own decisions. 
Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

29. With reference to India, consider the following statements: 
(1) There is only one citizenship and one domicile. 
(2) A citizen by birth only can become the Head of State. 
(3) A foreigner once granted citizenship cannot be deprived of it under any circumstances.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 
(a) 1 only 
(b) 2 only 
(c) 1 and 3 
(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (a)

Explanation: A single citizenship means that all Indians, regardless of their State of Domicile, are Indian citizens. In India, a person can become President by birth, registration, naturalization, or descent. A foreigner who has been awarded citizenship might lose it if certain conditions are met.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

30. Which one of the following factors constitutes the best safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy? 
(a) A committed judiciary 
(b) Centralisation of powers 
(c) Elected government 
(d) Separation of powers

Answer: (d)

Explanation: The separation of powers between the legislative, executive, and judiciary keeps the system in check. It establishes a framework for limited government. As a result, in a liberal democracy, it is the finest safeguard for liberty.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

31. How is permaculture farming different from conventional chemical farming?
(1) Permaculture farming discourages monocultural practices but in conventional chemical farming, monoculture practices are pre-dominant. 
(2) Conventional chemical farming can cause an increase in soil salinity but the occurrence of such a phenomenon is not observed in permaculture farming.
(3) Conventional chemical farming is easily possible in semi-arid regions but permaculture farming is not so easily possible in such regions. 
(4) Practice of mulching is very important in permaculture farming but not necessarily so in conventional chemical farming.

Select the correct answer using the code given below: 
(a) 1 and 3 
(b) 1, 2 and 4 
(c) 4 only 
(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

Explanation: Single-crop farming over vast stretches of land depletes essential nutrients, eventually leaving the area barren. As a result, monoculture is discouraged in Permaculture. Chemical farming makes use of artificial fertilizers that can build up salts in the soil over time, making it hostile to plants and limiting its application in semi-arid areas. Mulching is a crucial part of permaculture.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

32.  With reference to ‘palm oil’, consider the following statements: 
(1) The palm oil tree is native to Southeast Asia. 
(2) Palm oil is a raw material for some industries producing lipstick and perfumes. 
(3) Palm oil can be used to produce biodiesel.

Which of the statements given above are correct? 
(a) 1 and 2 only 
(b) 2 and 3 only 
(c) 1 and 3 only 
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

Explanation: Palm oil is a West African native that thrives in tropical regions with plenty of water. It is typically used as a raw ingredient in the fragrance industry. It can be used directly as boiler fuel which is a raw material for biodiesel production.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

33. With reference to the Indus river system of the following four rivers, three of them pour into one of them, which joins the Indus direct. Among the following, which one is such river that joins the Indus direct? 
(a) Chenab 
(b) Jhelum 
(c) Ravi 
(d) Sutlej

Answer: (a) 

Explanation: Among the above rivers, Chenab is the only river in which Jhelum, Ravi, and Sutlej come together.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

34. With reference to India, Didwana, Kuchaman, Sargol, and Khatu are the names of 
(a) Glaciers 
(b) Mangrove areas 
(c) Ramsar sites 
(d) Saline lakes

Answer: (d) 

Explanation: Rajasthan’s saline lakes include Didwana, Kuchaman, Sargol, and Khatu. Didwana is a town in Rajasthan’s Nagaur district. It is home to Rajasthan’s famed Didwana salt-water lake. 
Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

35. Consider the following rivers: 
(1) Brahmani 
(2) Nagavali 
(3) Subarnarekha 
(4) Vamsadhara

Which of the above rise from the Eastern Ghats? 
(a) 1 and 2 
(b) 2 and 4 
(c) 3 and 4 
(d) 1 and 3

Answer: (b)
 
Explanation: River Vamsadhara flows in Orissa’s the Eastern Ghats. The Nagavali River rises near Lakhbahal in the Kalahandi district of Orissa on the eastern slopes of the Eastern Ghats. 
Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

36. Consider the following statements: 
(1) The Global Ocean Commission grants licenses for seabed exploration and mining in international waters. 
(2) India has received licenses for seabed mineral exploration in international waters. 
(3) ‘Rare earth minerals are present on the seafloor in international waters.

Which of the statements given above are correct? 
(a) 1 and 2 only 
(b) 2 and 3 only 
(c) 1 and 3 only 
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

Explanation: The International Seabed Authority ensures that seabed exploration and mining are carried out efficiently. ISA has given India a 75,000-square-kilometer area in the Central Indian Ocean Basin for the exploration of Polymetallic Nodules. 380 million metric tonnes of PMN and rare earth minerals are estimated to be on the seafloors. 
Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

37. Among the following which one is the least water-efficient crop? 
(a) Sugarcane 
(b) Sunflower 
(c) Pearl millet 
(d) Red gram

Answer: (a)

Explanation: The least water-efficient crop among these is sugarcane. It has a water requirement of about 1800-2200 mm/season which is the highest. 
Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

38. Consider the following statements: 
(1) In the tropical zone, the western sections of the oceans are warmer than the eastern sections owing to the influence of trade winds. 
(2) In the temperate zone, westerlies make the eastern sections of oceans warmer than the western sections.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 
(a) 1 only 
(b) 2 only 
(c) Both 1 and 2 
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

Explanation: The Northeast trade winds in the Northern hemisphere of the tropical zone bring warmer water westward through the ocean. Warm winds are carried to the western shores of continents, which is the eastern section of the Oceans in the temperate zone, by westerlies.
Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

39.  In the context of India’s preparation for Climate-Smart Agriculture, consider the following statements: 
(1) The ‘Climate-Smart Village’ approach in India is a part of a project led by the Climate Change, Agriculture and Food Security (CCAFS), an international research program. 
(2) The project of CCAFS is carried out under the Consultative Group on International Agricultural Research (CGIAR) headquartered in France. 
(3) The International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) in India is one of the CGIAR’s research centres.

Which of the statements given above are correct? 
(a) 1 and 2 only 
(b) 2 and 3 only 
(c) 1 and 3 only 
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

Explanation: The Climate-Smart Village initiative is envisioned by the CGIAR Research Program on Climate Change, Agriculture, and Food Security (CCAFS). CCFAS is run by the CGIAR, which has its headquarters in Montpellier, France. ICRISAT is one of the few CGIAR Centers with a well-defined and executed outreach.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

40. “Leaf litter decomposes faster than in any other biome and as a result, the soil surface is often almost bare. Apart from trees, the vegetation is largely composed of plant forms that reach up into the canopy vicariously, by climbing the trees or growing as epiphytes, rooted on the upper branches of trees.” This is the most likely description of
(a) Coniferous forest 
(b) Dry deciduous forest 
(c) Mangrove forest 
(d) Tropical rainforest

Answer: (d)

Explanation: The hot and humid climate of tropical rainforests provides a perfect environment for bacteria and other microbes. These creatures degrade debris on the forest floor quickly as they are active all year.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

41. Under the Indian Constitution, the concentration of wealth violates 
(a) The Right to Equality 
(b) The Directive Principles of State Policy 
(c) The Right to Freedom 
(d) The Concept of Welfare

Answer: (b)

Explanation: According to Article 39, The State should ensure that the operation of the economic system does not result in the concentration of wealth.  Articles 39 (b) and (c) are the two most important directive principles that pledge to minimize wealth concentration.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

42. What is the position of the Right to Property in India? 
(a) Legal right available to citizens only 
(b) Legal rights available to any person 
(c) Fundamental Rights available to citizens only 
(d) Neither Fundamental rights nor legal rights

Answer: (b)

Explanation: According to Article 300A, No one shall be deprived of his property except by the authority of law. As a result, the article safeguards an individual from government interference and dispossession of property unless it is done in compliance with legal procedures.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

43. What was the exact constitutional status of India on 26th January 1950? 
(a) The Democratic Republic 
(b) The Sovereign Democratic Republic 
(c) A Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic 
(d) A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic

Answer: (b)

Explanation:  India’s constitutional status was, the Sovereign Democratic Republic in the 1950s. It was awarded the constitutional status of being Socialist and Secular in the ideals set in the preamble after the 42nd constitutional amendment act of 1976.
Therefore the correct answer is (b).

44. Constitutional government means 
(a) a representative government of a nation with a federal structure 
(b) a government whose Head enjoys nominal powers 
(c) a government whose Head enjoys real powers 
(d) a government limited by the terms of the Constitution

Answer: (d)

Explanation: The foundation of Constitutional government is limited governance. It is defined by the presence of a constitution, a set of fixed rules that regulates the exercise of political power.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

45. With reference to India, the terms ‘Halbi, Ho, and Kui’ pertain to 
(a) dance forms of Northwest India 
(b) musical instruments 
(c) pre-historic cave paintings 
(d) tribal languages

Answer: (d)

Explanation: Eastern Indo-Aryan language Halbi is spoken in central India. In Odisha and Jharkhand, Ho is a Munda Tribal language and The Kandhas speak Kui, a South-Eastern Dravidian language. They all are Tribal languages. 
Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

46.  Consider the following statements in respect of Barat Ratna and Padma Awards: 
(1) Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titled under Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India. 
(2) Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once. 
(3) The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year.

Which of the above statements are not correct? 
(a) 1 and 2 only 
(b) 2 and 3 only 
(c) 1 and 3 only 
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

Explanation: These awards are not titles, according to Article 18(1) of the Constitution, and should not be used as prefixes or suffixes. The government abolished the practice of granting Padma awards in 1978 and 1979 and from 1993 to 1997. A maximum of three persons can be awarded the Bharat Ratna and 120 Padma Shri.
Therefore, the correct answer is (c). 

47. Consider the following statements: 
Statement 1: The United Nations Capital Development Fund (UNCDF) and the Arbor Day Foundation have recently recognized Hyderabad as the 2020 Tree City of the World. 
Statement 2: Hyderabad was selected for recognition for a year following its commitment to grow and maintain the urban forests.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements:? 
(a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1. 
(b) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct but statement 2 is not the correct explanation for Statement 1. 
(c) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is not correct. 
(d) Statement 1 is not correct but Statement 2 is correct.

Answer: (d)

Explanation: The FAO and Arbor Day Foundation, named Hyderabad the Tree City of the World, not the UNCDF. This award was granted in recognition of the commitment to planting and sustaining urban woods.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d). 

48. Consider the following statements in respect of the Laureus World Sports Award which was instituted in the year 2000: 
(1) American golfer Tiger Woods was the first winner of this award. 
(2) The award was received mostly by ‘Formula One’ players so far. 
(3) Roger Federer received this award the maximum number of times compared to others.

Which of the above statements are correct? 
(a) 1 and 2 only 
(b) 2 and 3 only 
(c) 1 and 3 only 
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 

Explanation: The Laureus World Sports Honor is an annual award that recognizes the accomplishments of individual men in sports. The first winner was Tiger Woods. It has been achieved ten times by tennis players, but only four times by Formula One players. Roger Federer has won the tournament five times thus far.
Therefore, the correct answer is (c). 

49. Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics: 
(1) The official motto for this Olympics is “A New World”. 
(2) Sport Climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate, and Baseball are included in this Olympics.

Which of the above statements is/are correct? 
(a) 1 only 
(b) 2 only 
(c) Both 1 and 2 
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 

Explanation: The Olympics’ official motto was “United by Emotions.” All of these sports are part of the Olympic Games added in 2020. The Olympics 2022 is to be held in Beijing.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

50. Consider the following statements in respect of the ICC World Test Championship: 
(1) The finalists were decided by the number of matches they won. 
(2) New Zealand has ranked ahead of England because it won more matches than England.

Which of the above statements is/are correct? 
(a) 1 only 
(b) 2 only 
(c) Both 1 and 2 
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d)

Explanation:  In the ICC World Test Championship, each series was given a score, which was then divided by the number of matches played. The overall amount of points scored by a team in all of their series is more important than the number of matches won by the team. From 2019 to 2011, England defeated New Zealand in more matches.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d). 

51. Consider the following statements: 
(1) The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is appointed by the Central Government.
(2) Certain provisions in the Constitution of India give the Central Government the right to issue directions to the RBI in the public interest.
(3) The Governor of the RBI draws his power from the RBI Act.

Which of the above statements are correct? 
(a) 1 and 2 only 
(b) 2 and 3 only 
(c) 1 and 3 only 
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 

Explanation: The RBI and Deputy Governor are appointed by the central government and cleared by the Cabinet Committee. Section 7 of the RBI Act of 1934 gives the Central Government the ability to provide directions to the Central Bank in the public interest, with the RBI governor’s approval. The Power is given by the RBI act to the Governor of the Reserve Bank of India.
Therefore, the answer is (c). 

52. With reference to casual workers employed in India, consider the following statements: 
(1) All causal workers are entitled to Employees Provident Fund coverage. 
(2) All casual workers are entitled to regular working hours and overtime payment. 
(3) The government can by notification specify that an establishment or industry shall pay wages only through its bank account.

Which of the above statements are correct? 
(a) 1 and 2 only 
(b) 2 and 3 only 
(c) 1 and 3 only 
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 

Explanation: In January 2020, the SC ruled that employers cannot discriminate between contractual and permanent employees, and those casual workers are entitled to Employees’ Provident Fund coverage. All salaries must be given to the employee, according to Section 15 of Chapter III of The Code on Wages, 2019. The government can specify in a notification that an employer must pay salaries only through its bank account.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d). 

53. Which of the following steps is most likely to be taken at the time of an economic recession? 
(a) Cut in tax rates accompanied by an increase in interest rate. 
(b) Increase in expenditure on public projects. 
(c) Increase in tax rates accompanied by reduction of interest rate. 
(d) Reduction of expenditure on public projects.

Answer: (b) 

Explanation: The term “economic recession” refers to a considerable drop in overall economic activity. The government increases expenditures dramatically. Increased tax rates and less government spending will reduce liquidity and further constrain the country’s economy.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b). 

54. Consider the following statements: Other things remaining unchanged, market demand for a good might increase if 
(1) price of its substitute increases 
(2) price of its complement increases 
(3) the good is an inferior good and the income of the consumer increases 
(4) its price falls

Which of the above statements are correct? 
(a) 1 and 4 only 
(b) 2, 3 and 4 
(c) 1, 3 and 4 
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a)

Explanation: If the price of one of its substitutes rises then the demand for a good increase. If the price of one of its complements increases, the demand for a good decreases. If the income increases then the demand for an inferior good decreases. The demand for the goods increases, if the price of the goods falls. 
Therefore, the correct answer is (a). 

55. With reference to ‘Urban Cooperative Banks in India, consider the following statements: 
(1) They are supervised and regulated by local boards set up by the State Governments. 
(2) They can issue equity shares and preference shares. 
(3) They were brought under the purview of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 through an Amendment in 1966.


Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 
(a) 1 only 
(b) 2 and 3 only 
(c) 1 and 3 only 
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

Explanation: Since the enactment of The Banking Regulation (Amendment) Bill, 2020, UCB has been under RBI supervision and regulation. The Reserve Bank’s standards permitted UCB to increase its capital by issuing equity, preference shares, and debt instruments. All banking organizations in India are governed by the Banking Regulation Act of 1949. However, it was amended in 1966 to include cooperative banks. 
Therefore, the correct answer is (b). 

56. Indian Government Bond Yields are influenced by which of the following? 
(1) Actions of the United States Federal Reserve 
(2) Actions of the Reserve Bank of India 
(3) Inflation and short-term interest rates

Select the correct answer using the code given below: 
(a) 1 and 2 only 
(b) 2 only 
(c) 3 only 
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

Explanation: When the US Federal Reserve raises interest rates, money flows out of stocks and into US government bonds, and money flows in from developing countries to the US. As a result, it has a negative influence on Indian government bond yields. The RBI’s policies directly impact inflation and short-term interest rates, which affect bond prices and yields. Short-term interest rates and the rate of inflation are the major determinants of interest rates on government bonds.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d). 

57. Consider the following: 
(1) Foreign currency convertible bonds 
(2) Foreign institutional investment with certain conditions 
(3) Global depository receipts 
(4) Non-resident external deposits 

Which of the above can be included in Foreign Direct Investments?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 
(b) 3 only 
(c) 2 and 4 
(d) 1 and 4

Answer: (a)

Explanation: Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds are issued in foreign currency by an Indian company and purchased by a non-resident. According to SEBI, FPI regulations 2019, any FII investment of more than 10% will be considered FDI in India.
Global Depository Receipt – Any instrument issued by an overseas depository bank in the form of a depository receipt or certificate is FDI.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a). 

58. Consider the following statements: The effect of the devaluation of a currency is that it necessarily 
(1) improves the competitiveness of the domestic exports in the foreign markets 
(2) increases the foreign value of the domestic currency 
(3) improves the trade balance

Which of the above statements is/are correct? 
(a) 1 only 
(b) 1 and 2 
(c) 3 only 
(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (a)

Explanation: Devaluation lowers the price of export goods in foreign currency, making them less expensive in international markets and hence more competitive. it makes domestic currency cheaper in comparison to foreign money, lowering the domestic currency’s foreign value. The trade balance is the discrepancy between the value of a country’s exports and imports. We can’t say that devaluation will always enhance the trade balance.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a). 

59. Which one of the following effects of the creation of black money in India has been the main cause of worry to the Government of India? 
(a) Diversion of resources to the purchase of real estate and investment in luxury housing 
(b) Investment in unproductive activities and purchase of precious stones, jewellery, gold, etc. (c) Large donations to political parties and growth of regionalism 
(d) Loss of revenue to the State Exchequer due to tax evasion.

Answer: (d)

Explanation: All of the things stated above can be done using black money. However, the Government of India’s main concern is the loss of revenue due to tax evasion, as the extent of evasion can only be guessed and not fully assessed.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

60. Which one of the following is likely to be the most inflationary in its effects? 
(a) Repayment of public debt 
(b) Borrowing from the public to finance a budget deficit 
(c) Borrowing from the banks to finance a budget deficit 
(d) Creation of new money to finance a budget deficit

Answer: (d) 

Explanation: (a) implies the government returning borrowed funds to institutions, which can be utilized to make new loans or could be cleaned up by the RBI. It could be mildly inflationary or not. A crowding-out effect will occur in both (b) and (c), reducing the money available for lending and raising the cost of borrowing for private players may cause modest inflation. (d) will result in a multi-fold rise in the money supply in the economy by increasing the High-Powered Money supply and driving up the Money-multiplier resulting in  Hyperinflation. 
Therefore, the answer is (d).

61. Which one of the following is used in preparing a natural mosquito repellent? 
(a) Congress grass 
(b) Elephant grass 
(c) Lemongrass 
(d) Nutgrass

Answer: (c) 

Explanation: Citronella grass, sometimes known as lemongrass, is the most commonly used natural ingredient in insect repellants.
Therefore, the correct answer is (c). 

62. Consider the following kinds of organisms: 
(1) Copepods 
(2) Cyanobacteria 
(3) Diatoms 
(4) Foraminifera

Which of the above are primary producers in the food chains of oceans?
(a) 1 and 2 
(b) 2 and 3 
(c) 3 and 4 
(d) 1 and 4

Answer: (b)

Explanation: Only Cyanobacteria and Diatoms can photosynthesize, and they are the principal producers in ocean food chains.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b). 

63. Consider the following animals: 
(1) Hedgehog 
(2) Marmot 
(3) Pangolin

To reduce the chance of being captured by predators, which of the above organisms rolls up/roll up and protects/protect its/their vulnerable parts? 
(a) 1 and 2 
(b) 2 only 
(c) 3 only 
(d) 1 and 3

Answer: (d) 

Explanation: When hedgehogs roll up, they have spikes on their backs to help deflect any attack. For denning and protection from predators, marmots dig intricate tunnels. Pangolins have strong scales on their backs that assist protect the vulnerable sections of their bodies when they roll-up. 
Therefore, the correct answer is (d). 

64. With reference to the ‘New York Declaration on Forests’, which of the following statements are correct? 
(1) It was first endorsed at the United Nations Climate Summit in 2014. 
(2) It endorses a global timeline to end the loss of forests. 
(3) It is a legally binding international declaration. 
(4) It is endorsed by governments, big companies, and indigenous communities. 
(5) India was one of the signatories at its inception.

Select the correct answer using the code given below: (
a) 1, 2 and 4 
(b) 1, 3 and 5 
(c) 3 and 4 
(d) 2 and 5

Answer: (a) 

Explanation: The NYDF, which was launched in September 2014 at the UN Secretary-Climate General’s Summit, established goals to protect and restore forests while also ending natural forest loss by 2030. The New York Declaration on Forests is a non-binding political declaration resulting from discussions between governments, corporations, and civil society. India is not a member of the NYDF.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a).  

65. Magnetite particles, suspected to cause neurodegenerative problems, are generated as environmental pollutants from which of the following? 
(1) Brakes of motor vehicles 
(2) Engines of motor vehicles 
(3) Microwave stoves within homes 
(4) Power plants 
(5) Telephone lines

Select the correct answer using the code given below: 
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only 
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only 
(c) 3, 4 and 5 only 
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5


Answer: (d) 

Explanation: Magnetite is an iron-oxide mineral that can be found in nature. It has been found in diesel exhaust, as brake-abrasion particles, in the air of subway stations, along railway lines, at welding sites, in industrial combustion process emissions, exposure to intense magnetic fields during MRI, cellular phones, electric power lines, and appliances.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d). 

66. Which one of the following is a filter feeder? 
(a) Catfish 
(b) Octopus 
(c) Oyster 
(d) Pelican 
Answer: (c) 
Explanation: Nitrogen is a substantial component for plants and animals, but too much nitrogen promotes algae development, which reduces oxygen levels. Shellfish such as oysters, and clams, are effective filter feeders, absorbing extra nitrogen into their shells and tissue as they grow.
Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

 67. In the case of which one of the following biogeochemical cycles, the weathering of rocks is the main source of release of nutrients to enter the cycle? 
(a) Carbon cycle 
(b) Nitrogen cycle 
(c) Phosphorus cycle 
(d) Sulphur cycle 

Answer: (c) 

Explanation: As Phosphorus is mostly found as a mineral in phosphate rocks, nutrients are released primarily through weathering. It enters the cycle as a result of erosion and mining.
Therefore, the correct answer is (c). 

68. Which of the following are detritivores? 
(1) Earthworms 
(2) Jellyfish 
(3) Millipedes 
(4) Seahorses 
(5) Woodlice

Select the correct answer using the code given below: 
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only 
(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only 
(c) 1, 3 and 5 only 
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 

Answer: (c) 

Explanation:  Detritivores aid in the decomposition of organic matter by feeding on dead animals and plants. A seahorse receives energy by consuming other living beings. Jellyfish are excellent predators. Hence they both are carnivores.
Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

 69. The ‘Common Carbon Metric’, supported by UNEP, has been developed for 
(a) assessing the carbon footprint of building operations around the world 
(b) enabling commercial farming entities around the world to enter carbon emission trading 
(c) enabling governments to assess the overall carbon footprint caused by their countries 
(d) assessing the overall carbon foot-print caused by the use of fossil fuels by the world in a unit time

Answer: (a) 

Explanation: The UN Environment Program’s Sustainable Buildings & Climate Initiative established the Common Carbon Metric as a framework for measuring energy use and reporting GHG emissions from building operations.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a). 

70. Which of the following have species that can establish symbiotic relationships with other organisms? 
(1) Cnidarians 
(2) Fungi 
(3) Protozoa

Select the correct answer using the code given below: 
(a) 1 and 2 only 
(b) 2 and 3 only 
(c) 1 and 3 only 
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

Explanation:  Interaction between cnidarians and dinoflagellate algae is symbiotic because both the animal host and the algae benefit from it. It’s a mutualistic relationship. Mycorrhiza and lichen are examples of two fungi that have symbiotic associations. In protozoa, symbiosis usually refers to a close mutualistic relationship between a protozoan and unicellular symbionts.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d). 

71. The money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following? 
(a) Increase in the Cash Reserve Ratio in the banks 
(b) Increase in the Statutory Liquidity Ratio in the banks. 
(c) Increase in the banking habit of the people. 
(d) Increase in the population of the country.

Answer: (c) 

Explanation: The money multiplier is the increase in the money supply. An increase in banking activity will result in more money in the bank’s hands in the form of Time Deposits, Demand Deposits, Cash, and other forms of deposit, and so the money multiplier will increase.
Therefore, the correct answer is (c). 

72. With reference to the Indian economy, demand-pull inflation can be caused/increased by which of the following? 
(1) Expansionary policies 
(2) Fiscal stimulus 
(3) Inflation-indexing wages 
(4) Higher purchasing power 
(5) Rising interest rates

Select the correct answer using the code given below: 
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only 
(b) 3, 4 and 5 only 
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only 
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: (d) 
Explanation: Expansionary policies stimulate economic activity by lowering interest rates and increasing the amount of money in the hands of the people. Increased government consumption or tax cuts are examples of fiscal stimulus. Both result in greater money in the hands of the population. Wages that are linked to inflation put more money in the hands of the working class, causing them to spend more during inflationary periods. More money in the public’s hands indicates greater purchasing power. High-interest rates make people assume that inflation will rise in the future, increasing demand for products now. Demand-pull inflation is the result of all of these factors.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d). 

73. With reference to India, consider the following statements: 
(1) Retail investors through Demat account can invest in ‘Treasury Bills’ and ‘Government of India Debt Bonds’ in the primary market. 
(2) The ‘Negotiated Dealing System Order Matching’ is a government securities trading platform of the Reserve Bank of India. 
(3) The ‘Central Depository Services Ltd.’ Is jointly promoted by the Reserve Bank of India and the Bombay Stock Exchange. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 
(a) 1 only 
(b) 1 and 2 
(c) 3 only 
(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 

Explanation: (1) The RBI announced that retail investors can now open gilt accounts to invest directly in the government’s primary and secondary bond markets. (2) is RBI’s screen-based automated order matching system for secondary market trading in government securities. (3) is sponsored by the Bombay Stock Exchange, Asia’s newest stock exchange. HDFC Bank Ltd, Standard Chartered Bank, and Canara Bank are among the other owners.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

74. With reference to ‘Water Credit’, consider the following statements: 
(1) It puts microfinance tools to work in the water and sanitation sector. 
(2) It is a global initiative launched under the aegis of the World Health Organization and the World Bank. 
(3) It aims to enable the poor people to meet their water needs without depending on subsidies.

Which of the statements given above are correct? 
(a) 1 and 2 only 
(b) 2 and 3 only 
(c) 1 and 3 only 
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (c) 

Explanation: Water Credit is the first to use microfinance technologies in the water and sanitation industry. It is a project of Water.org, a non-profit organization dedicated to providing clean water and sanitation to people. It supplies affordable financing, and small loans, enabling people to have access to safe water and sanitation.  
Therefore, the correct answer is (c). 

75. In India, the central bank’s function as the ‘lender of last resort’ usually refers to which of the following? 
(1) Lending to trade and industry bodies when they fail to borrow from other sources. 
(2) Providing liquidity to the banks having a temporary crisis. 
(3) Lending to governments to finance budgetary deficits.

Select the correct answer using the code given below: 
(a) 1 and 2 
(b) 2 only 
(c) 2 and 3 
(d) 3 only

Answer: (b) 

Explanation: The central bank serves as a lender of last resort for institutions that have exhausted all other options, however, this does not include financing to trade and industry organisations.  RBI can help a bank that is experiencing temporary liquidity challenges by providing much-needed cash, which would have an impact on other banks and organisations. The central bank’s principal role is not to lend to governments in order to support budget deficits.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

76. ‘R2 Code of Practices’ constitutes a tool available for promoting the adoption of 
(a) environmentally responsible practices in the electronics recycling industry 
(b) ecological management of ‘Wetlands of International Importance under the Ramsar Convention 
(c) sustainable practices in the cultivation of agricultural crops in degraded lands 
(d) ‘Environmental Impact Assessment’ in the exploitation of natural resources

Answer: (a) 

Explanation: R2 – Responsible Recycling is a standard developed by Sustainable Electronics Recycling International exclusively for the electronics recycling industry.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a). 
 

77. Why is there a concern about copper smelting plants? 
(1) They may release lethal quantities of carbon monoxide into the environment. 
(2) The copper slag can cause the leaching of some heavy metals into the environment. 
(3) They may release sulphur dioxide as a pollutant.

Select the correct answer using the code given below: 
(a) 1 and 2 only 
(b) 2 and 3 only 
(c) 1 and 3 only 
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 

Explanation: Despite the fact that carbon monoxide is created during the smelting process, it is transformed into carbon dioxide. Slag is the residue after metals have been separated that could infiltrate hazardous heavy metals into groundwater reservoirs. The majority of copper ores are sulfur-based, and smelting produces sulfur dioxide, an atmospheric pollutant with numerous negative impacts.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b). 

78. With reference to furnace oil, consider the following statements: 
(1) It is a product of oil refineries. 
(2) Some industries use it to generate power. 
(3) Its use causes sulphur emissions into the environment.

Which of the statements given above are correct? 
(a) 1 and 2 only 
(b) 2 and 3 only 
(c) 1 and 3 only 
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 

Explanation: Furnace oil is a residual fuel made from combining heavier crude oil components. It is an oil refinery byproduct. It is generally utilised in power plants, ships, and industrial operations for steam boilers. When furnace oil is burned, it emits a high level of sulphur.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d). 
 

79. What is blue carbon? 
(a) Carbon captured by oceans and coastal ecosystems 
(b) Carbon sequestered in forest biomass and agricultural soils 
(c) Carbon contained in petroleum and natural gas 
(d) Carbon present in the atmosphere

Answer: (a) 

Explanation: The term “blue carbon” refers to carbon captured by the ocean and coastal ecosystems around the world. They contain vast amounts of carbon deposited over centuries by plants and natural processes. 
Therefore, the correct answer is (a). 

80. In nature, which of the following is/are most likely to be found surviving on a surface without soil? 
(1) Fern 
(2) Lichen 
(3) Moss 
(4) Mushroom

Select the correct answer using the code given below: 
(a) 1 and 4 only 
(b) 2 only 
(c) 2 and 3 
(d) 1, 3 and 4

Answer: (c)

Explanation: Ferns need indirect sunlight, moist soil, and a humid environment to thrive. Lichens may grow on practically any surface under a variety of climatic situations. Mosses are plants that do not flower and do not have genuine roots. A mushroom is a fungus that grows on soil, or on its feeding source.
Therefore, the answer is (c).

81. With reference to the history of ancient India, Bhavabhuti, Hastimalla, and Kshemeshvara were famous 
(a) Jain monks 
(b) Playwrights 
(c) Temple architects 
(d) Philosophers

Answer: (b) 

Explanation: Bhavabhuti was a well-known Sanskrit playwright who penned works such as Mahaviracharita. In the Hoysala Empire, Hastimalla was a Kannada poet and writer who wrote Purvapurana. Dasavatar Charita was written by Kshemeshvara, a Sanskrit poet from Kashmir.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b). 

82. Consider the following statements: 
(1) The Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms of 1919 recommended granting voting rights to all women above the age of 21. 
(2) The Government of India Act of 1935 gave women reserved seats in the legislature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 
(a) 1 only 
(b) 2 only 
(c) Both 1 and 2 
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 

Explanation: Women were not granted franchise under the Montagu Chelmsford reforms. The GoI Act of 1935 established communal electorates for women. They could run for general seats as well.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b). 

83. With reference to 8th August 1942 in Indian history, which one of the following statements is correct? 
(a) The Quit India Resolution was adopted by the AICC. 
(b) The Viceroy’s Executive Council was expanded to include more Indians. 
(c) The Congress ministries resigned in seven provinces. 
(d) Cripps proposed an Indian Union with full Dominion Status once the Second World War was over.

Answer: (a) 

Explanation: Mahatma Gandhi passed the Quit India resolution in the Bombay Session of the AICC on August 8, 1942. The GOI Act of 1919 introduced more Indians to the Viceroy’s executive council. In 1939, Congress ministries resigned in protest of Britain’s unilateral announcement of India’s engagement in World War II. In March 1942 Cripps proposed full dominion status. 
Therefore, the answer is (a). 

84. Who among the following is associated with ‘Songs from Prison’, a translation of ancient Indian religious lyrics in English? 
(a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak 
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru 
(c) Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi 
(d) Sarojini Naidu

Answer: (c) 

Explanation: ‘Songs from Prison’ was a book written by Gandhiji.
Therefore, the correct answer is (c). 

85. With reference to medieval India, which one of the following is the correct sequence in ascending order in terms of size? 
(a) Paragana – Sarkar – Suba 
(b) Sarkar – Paragana – Suba 
(c) Suba – Sarkar – Paragana 
(d) Paragana – Suba – Sarkar

Answer: (a) 

Explanation: In medieval India, a Paragana was a group of villages, the Sarkar was above it, and the Suba was a province above the Sarkar.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a). 

86. Who among the following was associated as Secretary with Hindu Female School which later came to be known as Bethune Female School? 
(a) Annie Besant 
(b) Debendranath Tagore 
(c) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar 
(d) Sarojini Naidu

Answer : (c)

Explanation: Pandit Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar, the famed social reformer responsible for the abolition of the Sati custom and a staunch advocate for women’s emancipation, was appointed as the Secretary in 1856. 
Therefore, the correct answer is (c). 

87. In the context of Colonial India, Shah Nawaz Khan, Prem Kumar Sehgal, and Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon are remembered as 
(a) Leaders of Swadeshi and Boycott Movement 
(b) Members of the Interim Government in 1946 
(c) Members of the Drafting Committee in the Constituent Assembly 
(d) Officers of the Indian National Army

Answer: (d) 

Explanation: All three were Indian National Army officers who rose to prominence at the INA trials in the Red Fort in Delhi in 1945.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

88. With reference to Indian history, which of the following statements is/are correct? 
(1) The Nizamat of Arcot emerged out of Hyderabad State 
(2) The Mysore Kingdom emerged out of Vijayanagara Empire. 
(3) The Rohilkhand Kingdom was formed out of the territories occupied by Ahmad Shah Durrani.

Select the correct answer using the code given below: 
(a) 1 and 2 
(b) 2 only 
(c) 2 and 3 
(d) 3 only

Answer : (b) 

Explanation: The Nizamat of Arcot was protected by Hyderabad, but it never emerged from it. Under the Wodeyar dynasty, which was originally a vassal of the Vijaynagara empire, Mysore became a strong kingdom. The state of Rohilkhand was founded in 1721, but Ahmad Shah Durrani began invading India in 1748.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

89. Which one of the following statements is correct? 
(a) Ajanta Caves lie in the gorge of the Waghora river. 
(b) Sanchi Stupa lies in the gorge of the Chambal river. 
(c) Pandu-Lena Cave Shrines lies in the gorge of the Narmada river. 
(d) Amaravati Stupa lies in the gorge of the Godavari river.

Answer : (a) 

Explanation: The Ajanta caves are located in the Waghora river’s Basaltic gorge. Sanchi stupa is in Madhya Pradesh’s Raisen district, and Chambal does not cross through Raisen. The Pandu – Lena caverns are located in Nashik district, in front of the Trirasmi hill. The Amravati Stupa is located on the Krishna River’s bank.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a). 

90. Consider the following statements: 
(1) 21st February is declared to be the International Mother Language Day by UNICEF. 
(2) The demand that Bangla has to be one of the national languages was raised in the Constituent Assembly of Pakistan.

Which of the above statements is/are correct? 
(a) 1 only 
(b) 2 only 
(c) Both 1 and 2 
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 

Explanation: UNESCO has designated February 21st as International Mother Language Day. Dhirendra Nath Datta, a member of Pakistan’s Constituent Assembly, advocated that members be allowed to speak Bengali and that it be used for official purposes.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b). 

91. With reference to Chausath Yogini Temple situated near Morena, consider the following statements: 
(1) It is a circular temple built during the reign of the Kachchhapaghata Dynasty. 
(2) It is the only circular temple built in India. 
(3) It was meant to promote the Vaishnava cult in the region. 
(4) Its design has given rise to a popular belief that it was the inspiration behind the Indian Parliament building.

Which of the statements given above are correct? 
(a) 1 and 2 
(b) 2 and 3 only 
(c) 1 and 4 
(d) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (c)

Explanation: it was established in the 11th c by King Devpala of the Kacchapaghata dynasty, the Chausath Yogini temple near Jabalpur is likewise circular.  It is dedicated to Yoginis, and not intended to promote Vaishnavism. Due to the resemblance between the two designs, some have speculated that the Parliament building was inspired by it.
Therefore, the correct answer is (c). 

92. Which one of the following ancient towns is well-known for its elaborate system of water harvesting and management by building a series of dams and channelizing water into connected reservoirs? 
(a) Dholavira 
(b) Kalibangan 
(c) Rakhigarhi 
(d) Ropar

Answer: (a)

Explanation: Dholavira, located in the Rann of Kutch, is notable among Indus Valley sites for its water management system.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a). 

93. In the first quarter of the seventeenth century, in which of the following was/were the factory/factories of the English East India Company located? 
(1) Broach 
(2) Chicacole 
(3) Trichinopoly

Select the correct answer using the code given below: 
(a) 1 only 
(b) 1 and 2 
(c) 3 only 
(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (a)

Explanation: The East India Company established factories in Surat, Broach, Ahmedabad, Agra, and Masulipatnam during the first quarter of the seventeenth century.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a). 

94. From the decline of Guptas until the rise of Harshavardhana in the early seventh century, which of the following kingdoms were holding power in Northern India? 
(1) The Guptas of Magadha 
(2) The Paramaras of Malwa 
(3) The Pushyabhutis of Thanesar 
(4) The Maukharis of Kannauj 
(5) The Yadavas of Devagiri 
(6) The Maitrakas of Valabhi

Select the correct answer using the code given below: 
(a) 1, 2 and 5 
(b) 1, 3, 4 and 6 
(c) 2, 3 and 4 
(d) 5 and 6

Answer: (b) 

Explanation: Following the Guptas’ decline, the Later Guptas took over as rulers of Magadha in the north. Paramara dynasty ruled the western and central sections like Malwa. The Pushyabhutis of Thanesar, now Haryana, ruled over most of Northern India. Parts of Uttar Pradesh and Magadha, including Kannauj, were governed by the Maukharis dynasty. The Yadavas of Devagiri ruled in western India. The Valabhi Maitrakas governed the western and northern sections of modern-day Gujarat.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b). 

95. According to Portuguese writer Nuniz, the women in Vijayanagara Empire were experts in which of the following areas? 
(1) Wrestling 
(2) Astrology 
(3) Accounting 
(4) Soothsaying

Select the correct answer using the code given below: 
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only 
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only 
(c) 2 and 4 only 
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (d)

Explanation: In the years 1535-1537 AD, Fernao Nuniz visited the Vijayanagara Empire. He noted that there were women who wrestled, who were astrologers and soothsayers, and who would maintain the accounts.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d). 

96. With reference to Madanapalle of Andhra Pradesh, which one of the following statements is correct? 
(a) Pingali Venkayya designed the tricolour Indian National Flag here. 
(b) Pattabhi Sitaramaiah led the Quit India Movement of the Andhra region from here. 
(c) Rabindranath Tagore translated the National Anthem from Bengali to English here. 
(d) Madame Blavatsky and Colonel Olcott set up headquarters of the Theosophical Society first here.

Answer: (c)

Explanation: Rabindranath Tagore translated his Bengali poetry / National Anthem ‘Jana Gana Mana’ into English as ‘Morning Song of India’ during his stay at Theosophical College, in 1919. 
Therefore, the correct answer is (c). 
 
97. Consider the following pairs: (Historical place) (Well-known for) 
1. Burzahom: Rock-cut shrines 
2. Chandra-ketugarh : Terrocotta art
3. Ganeshwar: Copper artifacts

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 
(a) 1 only 
(b) 1 and 2 
(c)  3 only 
(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

Explanation: Tools constructed of bones and stones symbolizing ritualistic practices were discovered in Burzahom, Kashmir valley. Several terracotta artifacts, including erotic art on plaques, have been discovered in Chandraketugarh. Copper items were discovered in the Khetri copper mines near Ganeshwar-Jodhpur. 
Therefore, the correct answer is (d). 

98. Consider the following statements: 
(1) It was during the reign of Iltutmish that Chengiz Khan reached the Indus in pursuit of the fugitive Khwarezm prince. 
(2) It was during the reign of Muhammad bin Tughluq that Taimur occupied Multan and crossed the Indus. 
(3) It was during the reign of Deva Raya II of the Vijayanagara Empire that Vasco da Gama reached the coast of Kerala. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 
(a) 1 only 
(b) 1 and 2 
(c) 3 only 
(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (a)

Explanation: During the reign of Iltutmish, Changez Khan raided India and defeated Khwarizmi Shah. From 1325 to 1351 AD, Muhammad Bin Tughluq governed Delhi. Timur attacked India and crossed the Indus in 1398 AD. Between 1422 and 1446 AD, Vijayanagara was ruled by Deva Raya II and In 1498, Vasco Da Gama arrived on the Kerala coast.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

99. Consider the following statements: 
(1) St. Francis Xavier was one of the founding members of the Jesuit Order. 
(2) St. Francis Xavier died in Goa and a church is dedicated to him there. 
(3) The Feast of St. Francis Xavier is celebrated in Goa each year.

Which of the statements given above are correct? 
(a) 1 and 2 only 
(b) 2 and 3 only 
(c) 1 and 3 only 
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

Explanation: St. Francis Xavier took vows as one of the first seven members of the Society of Jesus in Paris in 1534. Francis died on the Chinese shore, on the island of Shangchuan on December 3, 1552. The Feast of St Francis Xavier is the largest of all the Christian holidays in Goa, commemorating his death
Therefore, the correct answer is (c). 

100. With reference to the history of ancient India, which of the following statements is/are correct? 
(1) Mitakshara was the civil law for upper castes and Dayabhaga was the civil law for lower castes. 
(2) In the Mitakshara system, the sons can claim the right to the property during the lifetime of the father, whereas in the Dayabhaga system, it is only after the death of the father that the sons can claim the right to the property. 
(3) The Mitakshara system deals with the matters related to the property held by male members only of a family, whereas the Dayabhaga system deals with the matters related to the property held by both male and female members of a family.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below: 
(a) 1 and 2 
(b) 2 only 
(c) 1 and 3 
(d) 3 only

Answer: (b) 

Explanation: During the father’s lifetime, all members of the joint family have coparcenary rights under the Mitakshara school of law. On the death of the father, the boys inherit it under Dayabhaga School. Any caste is not exempt from the application of either of the laws (s).
Therefore, the correct answer is (b).



Last Updated : 20 May, 2022
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