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UPSC Prelims 2020 – General Studies Paper I

Last Updated : 20 May, 2022
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The UPSC exam is one of India’s most difficult exams to pass, but it’s not impossible if you use the combination of hard work, appropriate strategy, and efforts directed in the right way. This section offers UPSC Prelims solved previous year’s question papers. It will give you an idea of what to expect in the examination and how to cover the topics. The UPSC Prelims are divided into two parts: Paper I and Paper II, which are both held on the same day. This is an objective paper with 100 multiple-choice questions to complete in two hours. Each question is worth two points. For each incorrect response, 0.66 points will be deducted as negative marks.
 

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Q1. Consider the following statements: 
1. Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than three months.
2. State cannot enter into any contract with private corporations for sharing of Aadhaar data. 
3. Aadhaar is mandatory for obtaining insurance products. 
4. Aadhaar is mandatory for getting benefits funded out of the Consolidated Fund of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 
(a) 1 and 4 only 
(b) 2 and 4 only 
(c) 3 only 
(d) 1, 2 and3 only

Answer: (b)

Explanation: Aadhaar metadata cannot be saved for more than six months, according to the Supreme Court. The provision of private corporations to authenticate Aadhaar data was struck down as illegal under section 57. In January 2019, IRDAI published that obtaining insurance does not require Aadhaar. According to Section 7 of the Aadhaar Act, having an Aadhaar number is required to receive benefits from the Consolidated Fund of India.
Therefore the correct answer is (b). 

Q2. Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in 
(a) the matter of creating new All India Services 
(b) amending the Constitution 
(c) the removal of the government 
(d) making cut motions

Answer: (b)

Explanation: In the amendment of the constitutional bill, both Rajya Sabha and Lok sabha share equal powers. The Rajya Sabha has a different status than the Lok Sabha in establishing and dismissing governments. Rajya Sabha has fewer financial powers, such as making cut motions. Rajya Sabha has exceptional powers, permitting the Parliament to create new All-India Services for both the Centre and the states.
Therefore the correct answer is (b). 

Q3. With reference to the funds under the Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS), which of the following statements are correct? 
1. MPLADS funds must be used to create durable assets like physical infrastructure for health, education, etc. 
2. A specified portion of each MP’s fund must benefit SC/ST populations. 
3. MPLADS funds are sanctioned on yearly basis and the unused funds cannot be carried forward to the next year. 
4. The district authority must inspect at least 10% of all works under implementation every year. 

Select the correct answer using the code given below: 
(a) 1 and 2 only 
(b) 3 and 4 only 
(c) 1, 2, and 3 only 
(d) 1, 2, and 4 only

Answer: (d)

Explanation: The MPLAD seeks to address the demands of local infrastructure and development. MPs give at least 15% of their funds to SC populated areas, and 7.5% to ST. MPLADS funds are non-lapsable and can be carried forward to next year. The District Authority is in charge of the overall project and inspects at least 10% of it each year.
Therefore the correct answer is (d)

Q4. Which one of the following categories of ‘Fundamental Rights incorporates against untouchability as a form of discrimination? 
(a) Right against Exploitation 
(b) Right to Freedom 
(c) Right to Constitutional Remedies 
(d) Right to Equality

Answer: (d)

Explanation: Untouchability is a sort of prejudice that goes against the idea of citizens being equal regardless of caste. As a result, it has been included in Article 17 as one of the five rights under the equality spectrum (Articles 14-18).
Therefore the correct answer is (d). 

Q5. In India, the separation of the judiciary from the executive is enjoined by 
(a) the Preamble of the Constitution 
(b) a Directive Principle of State Policy 
(c) the Seventh Schedule 
(d) the conventional practice

Answer: (b)

Explanation: By Article 50 of the Directive Principles of State Policy, the Criminal Procedure Code (1973) has impacted the separation of the judiciary and the executive.
Therefore the correct answer is (b). 


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