UPSC Prelims 2018 General Studies Paper I With Detailed Solutions

The UPSC exam is one of India’s most difficult exams to pass, but it’s not impossible if you use the combination of hard work, appropriate strategy, and efforts directed in the right way. This section offers UPSC Prelims solved previous year’s question papers. It will give you an idea of what to expect in the examination and how to cover the topics. The UPSC Prelims are divided into two parts: Paper I and Paper II, which are held on the same day. This is an objective paper with 100 multiple-choice questions to complete in two hours. Each question is worth two points. For each incorrect response, 0.66 points will be deducted as negative marks. 

Kindly find the UPSC Prelims 2018 – General Studies Paper 1 with Solution which was conducted on 3rd June 2018. Wish you all the best !!

1. Which of the following led to the introduction of English Education in India?
1. Charter Act of 1813
2. General Committee of Public Instruction, 1823
3. Orientalist and Anglicist Controversy
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: D

Solution: The Charter Act of 1813 devised the education policy of the English East India Company which provided that the company should spend one lakh rupees for the promotion of education among the Indians. However, even this petty amount was not made available till 1823, mainly because of the controversy raged on the question of the direction that this expenditure should take. In 1823, the Governor-General-in Council appointed a “General Committee of Public Instruction”, which had the responsibility to grant one lakh of rupees for education. Controversy arose between the Orientalists and the Anglicists regarding the type of education to be introduced in India. The Anglicists, consisting of Lord  Macaulay—the Law Member of Governor General’s Legislative Council, Alexander Duff, and Rammohan Roy, advocated the cause of English education. Lord Macaulay remarked that the knowledge derived from the books of English literature packed on a single shelf was more valuable than the knowledge that the whole range of Oriental literature would give. The other faction, known as the Orientalists, which included Princep, Colebrook, etc., advocated the cause of oriental languages like Persian and  Sanskrit instead of English. They pointed out that students would be good job hunters but they would fail to deliver to their countrymen if they studied only English. Ultimately, the controversy was settled in 1835 under the Governor Generalship of William Bentinck. He strongly advocated the policy of spending money on the promotion of English education in India.

2. Which one of the following is an artificial lake?
(a) Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu)
(b) Kolleru (Andhra Pradesh)
(c) Nainital (Uttarakhand)
(d) Renuka (Himachal Pradesh)
Ans: A

Solution: Kodaikanal Lake, also known as Kodai Lake is a manmade lake located in Kodaikanal city in Dindigul district in Tamil Nadu, India. Kolleru Lake is not artificial but is a natural freshwater lake. It is the largest natural lake in India and is located between Krishna and Godavari Deltas. Nainital, also known as Naini Lake, is a natural freshwater body, situated amidst the township of Nainital in Kumaon, Uttarakhand, India. It is tectonic in origin and is kidney-shaped or crescent-shaped and has an outfall at the southeastern end. Renuka -The largest natural lake in Himachal Pradesh, this lake is named after the goddess Renuka. It lies in the midst of a thickly-wooded valley in Sirmour district in Himachal Pradesh.

3. With reference to Pradhan MantriKaushalVikasYojana, consider the following statements:
1. It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
2. It, among other things, will also impart training in Soft Skills, Entrepreneurship, Financial and digital literacy.
3. It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the
National Skill Qualification Framework.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: C

Solution: Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE) implemented by the National Skill Development Corporation. The objective of this Skill Certification Scheme is to enable a large number of Indian youth to take up industry-relevant skill training that will help them in securing a better livelihood. Individuals with prior learning experience or skills will also be assessed and certified under the Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL). 

4. In 1920, which of the following changed its name to “SwarajyaSabha”?
(a) All India Home Rule League
(b) Hindu Mahasabha
(c) South Indian Liberal Federation
(d) The Servants of India Society
Ans: A

Solution: In 1920 All India Home Rule League changed its name to Swarajya Sabha.

5. Which of the following events happened earliest?
(a) Swami Dayanand established Arya Samaj.
(b) DinabandhuMitra wrote Neeldarpan.
(c) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote Anandmath.
(d) Satyendranath Tagore became the first Indian to succeed in the Indian Civil Services Examination.
Ans: B

Solution: Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neeldarpan in the year 1860.Arya Samaj  was founded by the Sannyasi Dayananda Saraswati on 7 April 1875.Anandamath is a Bengali fiction, written by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay and published in 1882. Satyendranath Tagore(first to clear ICS) was selected for the Indian Civil Service in June,1863.

6. Which of the following is/are the possible consequence/s of heavy sand mining in riverbeds?
1. Decreased salinity in the river
2. Pollution of groundwater
3. Lowering of the water table
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: B

Solution: Sand mining causes the sinking of water tables in  the nearby areas.

7. With reference to agricultural soils, consider the following statements:
1. A high content of organic matter in soil drastically reduces its water holding capacity.
2. Soil does not play any role in the sulphur cycle.
3. Irrigation over a period of time can contribute to the salinization of some agricultural
lands.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: B

Solution: Irrigation over a period of time can contribute to the salinization of some agricultural lands as deposits of salts build up in the soil and can cause harm to crops.

8. The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE), a UN mechanism to assist countries in transition toward greener and more inclusive economies, emerged at
(a) The Earth Summit on Sustainable Development 2002, Johannesburg
(b) The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio de Janeiro
(c) The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change 2015, Paris
(d) The World Sustainable Development Summit 2016, New Delhi
Ans: B
Solution: The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE) was launched in 2013 as a response to the call at Rio+20 to support those countries wishing to embark on greener and more inclusive growth trajectories.

9. “3D printing” has applications in which of the following?
1. Preparation of confectionery items
2. Manufacture of bionic ears
3. Automotive industry
4. Reconstructive surgeries
5. Data processing technologies
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 5 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Ans: D

Solution: “3D printing” has applications in all of the given applications.

10. Consider the following statements:
1. The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian Territory.
2. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar.
3. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained
inactive since then.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only

Ans: A

Solution: Barren Island volcano is the only active volcano located in the Indian territory, Andaman Islands. It is along a volcanic arc connecting Sumatra and Myanmar. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 2017.

11. Why is a called Prosopis juliflora often mentioned in news?
(a) Its extract is widely used in cosmetics.
(b) It tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area in which it grows.
(c) Its extracts is used in the synthesis of pesticides.
(d) None of the above
Ans: B 

Solution: The kikar or Prosopis juliflora was brought to Delhi from Mexico by the British more than a century ago. It tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area in which it grows. The exotic plant became invasive and wiped out most of the native plants and along with it the animals, which once used to roam in the ridges.

12. Consider the following statements
1. Most of the world’s coral reefs are in tropical waters.
2. More than one-third of the world’s coral reefs are located in the territories of Australia, Indonesia and Philippines.
3. Coral reefs host far more number of animal phyla than those hosted by tropical rainforests.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: D

Solution: Most coral reefs are located in tropical shallow waters less than 50 meters deep, in the western regions of the Indian ocean, Pacific Ocean and Greater Caribbean.Global distribution of corals Australia-17%, Indonesia-16%, Philippines-9%.
So, Australia, Indonesia, and the Philippines together host more than one-third of the world’s corals. 32 of the 34 recognized animal Phyla are found on coral reefs compared to only 9 Phyla in tropical rainforests.

13. “Momentum for change: Climate neutral now” is an initiative launched by
(a) The intergovernmental panel on climate change
(b) The UNEP secretariat
(c) The UNFCCC secretariat
(d) The world meteorological organization
Ans: C
Solution: The UNFCCC secretariat launched its Climate Neutral Now initiative in 2015. The following year, the secretariat launched a new pillar under its Momentum for Change initiative focused on Climate Neutral Now, as part of larger efforts to showcase successful climate action around the world.

14. With reference to educational institutions during colonial rule in India, consider the following pairs:
Institution Founder
1. Sanskrit college at Banaras William Jones
2. Calcutta Madrasa Warren Hastings
3. Fort William college Arthur Wellesley
Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
Ans: B
Solution:
Sanskrit College: Jonathan Duncan
Calcutta Madrasa: Warren Hastings
Fort William College: Richard Wellesley

15. Consider the following pairs :
Region sometimes mentioned in news Country
1. Catalonia – Spain
2. Crimea – Hungary
3. Mindanao – Philippines
4. Oromia – Nigeria
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
Ans: C
Solution:
Catalonia: Spain
Crimea: Ukraine
Mindanao: Philippines
Oromia: Ethiopia

16. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the meaning of legal tender money?
(a) The money which is tendered in courts of law to defray the fee of legal cases.
(b) The money which a creditors is under compulsion to accept in settlement of his claims.
(c) The bank money in the forms of cheque, drafts, bills of exchange, etc.
(d) The metallic money in circulation in a country.
Ans: B
Solution: As legal tender is acceptable by law, which no one can refuse to accept.

17. If a commodity is provided free to the public by the government, then
(a) The opportunity cost is zero.
(b) The opportunity cost is ignored.
(c) The opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the tax-paying public.
(d) The opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the government.
Ans: D
Solution: Opportunity cost is the cost that could have been earned from the second best investment option. For free goods, the opportunity cost is zero for the person consuming them, however, it is not so for the provider of that good. The choice of spending on various alternatives is available to the government and not taxpayers. Thus, it is transferred to the government.

18. Increase in absolute and per capita real GNP do not connote a higher level of economic development, if
(a) Industrial output fails to keep pace with agriculture output.
(b) Agriculture output fails to keep pace with industrial output.
(c) Poverty and unemployment increase.
(d) Imports grow faster than exports.
Ans: C
Solution: If gains of increase in per capita income are grabbed by a small section of society, then economic growth will not lead to economic development. For example – Libya.

19. Consider the following statements.
Human capital formation as a concept is better explained in terms of the process which enables it.
(a) Individuals of a country to accumulate more capital.
(b) Increasing the knowledge, skill levels, and capacities of the people of the country.
(c) Accumulation of tangible wealth.
(d) Accumulation of intangible wealth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans: C
Solution: While 2 is very meaningful for human capital accumulation, 4 also increases due to 2 only, for example, patents, copyrights, etc.

20. Despite being a high saving economy, capital formation may not result in a significant increase in output due to
(a) Weak administrative machinery
(b) Illiteracy
(c) High population density
(d) High capital output ratio
Ans: D
Solution: If a country has poor technology and low efficiency, even high savings, will lead to low economic growth.

21. After the Santhal uprising subsided, what was/were the measure/measures taken by the colonial government?
1. The territories called ‘Santhal Paraganas’ were created.
2. It became illegal for a santhal to transfer land to a non-santhal.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: C
Solution: Santhal Pargana District was created in 1885 after the partition of Bhagalpur and Birbhum. An important reason behind the creation of SanthalPargana was Santhal Mutiny in 1854-55.

22. Economically, one of the results of the British rule in India on the 19th century was the
(a) Increase in the export of Indian handicrafts
(b) Growth in the number of Indian owned factories.
(c) Commercialization of Indian agriculture.
(d) Rapid increase in the urban population
Ans: C
Solution: Commercialization of Indian agriculture started post 1813 when the industrial revolution in England gained pace.

23. If the president of India exercise his power as provided under article 356 of the constitutional
in respect of a particular state, then
(a) The assemble of the state is automatically dissolved.
(b) The powers of the legislature of that state shall be exercisable by or under the authority
of the parliament.
(c) Article 19 is suspended in that state.
(d) The president can make laws relating to that state.
Ans: D
Solution: When the President’s Rule is imposed in a State the Parliament can delegate the power to make laws for the state to the President or to any other authority specified by him in this regard.

24. Consider the following pairs:
Crafts Heritage of
1. Puthukkuli shawls Tamil Nadu
2. Sujni embroidery Maharashtra
3. Uppadajamdani saris Karnataka
Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3
Ans: A
Solution: Sujni Embroidery is of Bihar, Uppadajamdani Saris is of Andhra Pradesh.

25. In which of the following areas can GPS technology be used?
1. Mobile phone operations
2. Banking operations
3. Controlling the power grids
Select of the correct answer using the code below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: D
Solution: GPS’s accurate time helps everyday activities such as banking,mobile phone operations and control of power grids by allowing well synchronized hand-off-switching

26. Consider the following statements:
1. The Reserve Bank of India manages and services Government of India Securities but not any State Government Securities.
2. Treasury bills are issued by the Government of India and there are no treasury bills issued by the State Governments.
3. Treasury bills offer are issued at a discount from the par value.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: C
Solution: Treasury Bills are issued only by the central government in India. The State governments do not issue any treasury bills. Interest on the treasury bills is determined by market forces. RBI also manages many state government securities.

27. Consider the following statements:
1. The Earth’s magnetic field has reversed every few hundred thousand years.
2. When the Earth was created more than 4000 million years ago, there was 54% oxygen and no carbon dioxide.
3. When living organisms originated, they modified the early atmosphere of the Earth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: C
Solution: The Earth’s Magnetic field has reversed every few hundred thousand years. This has been proved through Sea-Floor spreading.

28. The terms ‘WannaCry, Petya and EternalBlue’ sometimes mentioned in the news recently
are related to
(a) Exoplanets
(b) Cryptocurrency
(c) Cyber attacks
(d) Mini satellites
Ans: C
Solution: Wannacry, Petya and EternalBlue are related to cyber-attacks. These are forms of Ransomware.

29. With reference to the circumstances in India agriculture, the concept of “Conservation
Agriculture” assumes significance. Which of the following fall under the Conservation
Agriculture?
1. Avoiding the monoculture practices
2. Adopting minimum tillage
3. Avoiding the cultivation of plantation crops
4. Using crop residues to cover soil surface
5. Adopting spatial and temporal crop sequencing/crop rotations
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(c) 2, 4 and 5
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 5
Ans: C
Solution: Conservation Agriculture is a set of soil management practices that minimize the disruption of the soil’s structure, composition and natural biodiversity. Despite high variability in the types of crops grown and specific management regimes, all forms of conservation agriculture share three core principles.

30. The term “sixth mass extinction/sixth extinction” is often mentioned in the news in the
context of the discussion of
(a) Widespread monoculture practices in agriculture and large-scale commercial farming
with indiscriminate use of chemicals in many parts of the world that may result in the
loss of good native ecosystems.
(b) Fears of a possible collision of a meteorite with the Earth in the near future in the
manner it happened 65 million years ago that caused the mass extinction of many
species including those of dinosaurs.
(c) Large scale cultivation of genetically modified crops in many parts of the world and
promoting their cultivation in other parts of the world which may cause the
disappearance of good native crop plants and the loss of food biodiversity.
(d) Mankind’s over-exploitation/misuse of natural resources, fragmentation/loss of natural
habitats, destruction of ecosystems, pollution and global climate change.
Ans: D
Solution: Earth is currently in the midst of what is being considered the 6th great mass extinction, or the Holocene extinction, or sometimes the Anthropocene extinction. An increasing number of species is disappearing from the face of the earth due to the human activities.

31. Consider the following events:
1. The first democratically elected communist party government formed in a State in
India.
2. India’s then largest bank, ‘Imperial Bank of India’, was renamed ‘State Bank of India’.
3. Air India was nationalised and became the national carrier.
4. Goa became a part of independent India.
Which of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?
(a) 4 – 1 – 2 – 3
(b) 3 – 2 – 1 – 4
(c) 4 – 2 – 1 – 3
(d) 3 – 1 – 2 – 4
Ans: B
Solution: The Kerala Legislative Assembly election of 1957 was the first assembly election in the Indian state of Kerala. The Communist Party of India won the election with 60 seats. The election led to the formation of first democratically elected communist government in India.

32. Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty.
Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the
above statements?
(a) Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution
(b) Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV
(c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III
(d) Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th Amendment to the Constitution
Ans: C
Solution: Article 21- Protection of life and personal liberty No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law.

33. Consider the following:
1. Areca nut
2. Barley
3. Coffee
4. Finger millet
5. Groundnut
6. Sesamum
7. Turmeric

The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has announced the Minimum Support Price
for which of the above?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 7 only
(b) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
(c) 1, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
Ans: B
Exp: The MSP is announced by the Government of India for 25 crops currently at the beginning of each season viz. Rabi and Kharif.

34. In which one of the following State Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary is located?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Manipur
(c) Meghalaya
(d) Nagaland
Ans: A
Exp: Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary (862 km2, 92°36′ – 93°09’E and 26°54 – 27°16’N) lies in the foothills of the Eastern Himalaya in the East Kameng District of Arunachal Pradesh.

35. With reference to India’s satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements:
1. PSLVs launch the satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are
designed mainly to launch communication satellites.
2. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position
in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth.
3. GSLV Mk III is a four-staged launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid
rocket motors; and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 3 only
Ans: A
Exp: PSLVs launch the satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites. Satellites launched by GSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth.

36. With reference to the governance of public sector banking in India, consider the following statements:
1. Capital infusion into public sector banks by the Government of India has steadily increased in the last decade.
2. To put the public sector banks in order, the merger of associate banks with the parent  State Bank of India has been affected.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: B

Exp: After the Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Securities Interest Act, 2002 (also known as the SARFAESI Act), the government capital infusion steadily decreased until NPA problem introduced in 2015.

37. Consider the following items:
1. Cereal grains hulled
2. Chicken eggs cooked
3. Fish processed and canned
4. Newspapers containing advertising material
Which of the above items is/are exempted under GST (Goods and Services Tax)?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: C

38. Consider the following statements:
1. The definition of “Critical Wildlife Habitat” is incorporated in the Forest Rights Act,
2006.
2. For the first time in India, Baigas have been given Habitat Rights.
3. Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change officially decides and
declares Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal Groups in any part of India
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: A
Exp: The Critical Wildlife Habitats have been envisaged in Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006. In a bid to undo historical injustice meted out to primitive tribal communities living in central India, the government of Madhya Pradesh has for the first time recognised the habitat rights of seven villages in Dindori district, mostly inhabited by the Baiga.Grampanchayats decide Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable.

39. Consider the following:
1. Birds
2. Dust blowing
3. Rain
4. Wind blowing
Which of the above spread plant diseases?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: D
Exp:Agencies like wind, water, animals, insects, mites, nematodes, birds etc. are the different methods of indirect transmissions of pathogens causing plant disease.

40. With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements:
1. ‘The National Programme for Organic Production’ (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development.
2. ‘The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority’ (APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP.
3. Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: B
Exp:: Ministry of Commerce has implemented the National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP) since 2001. The testing is to be carried out in ISO 17025 accredited and preferably APEDA approved laboratories. Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic state by implementing organic practices on around 75,000 hectares of agricultural land.

41. Consider the following statements:
1. In the first LokSabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party.
2. In the LokSabha, a “Leader of the Opposition” was recognised for the first time in 1969.
3. In the LokSabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognized as the Leader of the Opposition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: B
Exp: 1952 elections The Congress had won 364 out of 489 LokSabha seats in the first-evergeneral election held in India. Its vote share was 45 per cent. The CPI was the second part with just 16 seats. The Swatantra Party was an Indian liberal-conservative political party that existed from 1959 to 1974.Leader of opposition was recognized for the first time in 1969.

42. Which of the following leaf modifications occur(s) in the desert areas to inhibit water loss?
1. Hard and waxy leaves
2. Tiny leaves
3. Thorns instead of leaves
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: D
Exp: The vegetation of hot desert climate is xerophytic type which has special characteristics to withstand very high rate of evaporation. They have long roots, thick barks, waxy leaves,thorns and little leaves.

43. As per the NSSO 70th Round “Situation Assessment Survey of Agricultural Households”, consider the following statements:
1. Rajasthan has the highest percentage share of agricultural households among its rural households.
2. Out of the total agricultural households in the country, a little over 60 percent belong to OBCs.
3. In Kerala, a little over 60 percent of agricultural households reported to have received maximum income from sources other than agricultural activities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: C
Exp: Rajasthan has highest agricultural households (78.4) among rural households, in terms of proportion, in absolute numbers it is Uttar Pradesh.The share of OBC households among rural households is about 45 percent.In Kerala, about 61 percent agricultural families have more income from agricultural sources.

44. How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)?
1. The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been created by an executive order of the Government.
2. The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to improve the quality of air in the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: B
Exp: The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), is statutory organisation, was constituted in September, 1974 under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. It is also the statutory body.

45. Consider the following statements:
1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitutions of India.
2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can be made on it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: A
Exp: In a landmark ruling on 11 January 2007, the Supreme Court of India ruled that all laws (including those in the Ninth Schedule) would be open to Judicial Review if they violated the basic structure of the constitution.

46. Which one of the following best describes the term “Merchant Discount Rate” sometimes seen in news?
(a) The incentive given by a bank to a merchant for accepting payments through debit cards pertaining to that bank.
(b) The amount paid back by banks to their customers when they use debit cards for financial transactions for purchasing goods or services.
(c) The charge to a merchant by a bank for accepting payments from his customers through the bank’s debit cards.
(d) The incentive given by the Government to merchants for promoting digital payments by their customers through Point of Sale (PoS) machines and debit cards.
Ans: C
Exp: Merchant discount rate on debit cards is the amount that a merchant has to pay to its service providers when a consumer swipes her card on the merchant’s point-of-sale terminal. It is also applicable for online transactions and QR-based transactions.The amount that the merchant pays for every transaction gets distributed among threestakeholders—the bank that enable the transaction, the vendor that installs the PoS machine and the card network provider such as Visa or MasterCard.

47. What is/are the consequence/consequences of a country becoming the member of the ‘Nuclear Suppliers Groups’?
1. It will have access to the latest and most efficient nuclear technologies.
2. It automatically becomes a member of “The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT)”.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: A
Exp: NSG membership also means India can begin to commercially produce nuclear power equipment, which it can then even sell to other countries. With access to state-of-the-art nuclear technologies, it can maximize its production benefits. NSG member will not automatically becomes a member of “The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT)”.

48.With reference to India’s decision to levy an equalization tax of 6% on online advertisement services offered by non-resident entities, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is introduced as a part of the Income Tax Act.
2. Non-resident entities that offer advertisement services in India can claim a tax credit in their home country under the “Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements”.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: D
Exp: The levy was introduced in the Budget as part of the finance bill and not as a part ofIncome Tax Act. So, because of this the companies would not be able to take the benefit of tax treaties to avoid double taxation in their home countries.It provides that income of the non resident from provision of the specified services to the assessee under chapter VIII of the FA is exempt from income tax in the hands of the non resident if the same is chargeable to equalization levy. However, it does not mean that the income of the non resident from the specified services would be charged to income tax if the same is not chargeable to equalization levy.

49. Consider the following statements:
1. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report has recommended a debt to GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) government by 2023, comprising 40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State Governments.
2. The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 21% of GDP as compared to that of 49% of GDP of the State Governments.
3. As per the Constitution of India, it is mandatory for a State to take the Central Government’s consent for raising any loan if the former owes any outstanding liabilities to the latter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: C
Exp: As per N.K. Singh committee report recommendations:
The combined debt-to-GDP ratio of the centre and states should be brought down to 60 percent by 2023 (comprising of 40 per cent for the Centre and 20% for states) as against the existing 49.4 per cent, and 21 per cent respectively.
Statement 3 is correct as per article 293 of the constitution.

50. Consider the following statements:
1. The quantity of imported edible oils is more than the domestic production of edible oils in the last five years.
2. The government does not impose any customs duty on all the imported edible oils as a special case.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: A
Exp: The quantity of the imported oil is almost 60% of total oil consumption in India. Government imposes custom duty on several edible oil, such as palm oil.

51. He wrote biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji and Shrikrishna; stayed in America for some time; and was also elected to the Central Assembly. He was
(a) Aurobindo Ghosh
(b) Bipin Chandra Pal
(c) LalaLajpatRai
(d) Motilal Nehru
Ans: C

52. Consider the following statements:
1. Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of citizenship or domicile.
2. Once issued, Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated or omitted by the Issuing Authority.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: D
Exp: Calcutta High Court ruled that Aadhaar Card is not a proof of citizenship and stated that“Aadhaar Card by itself shall not confer any right of or be proof of citizenship or domicile in respect of the holder thereto” while rejecting a claim of citizenship of the accused who was issued the card in view of his long residence in the country.The Aadhaar Act regulations, which are currently in Parliament, state that an individual’s Aadhaar number may be “omitted” permanently or deactivated temporarily by the Unique Identification Authority of India, the agency responsible for issuing the numbers and managing the database. The regulations give the Authority the power to deactivate Aadhaar numbers even in the absence of an effective grievance redressal procedure for those whose numbers have been suspended.

53. Which of the following has/have shrunk immensely/dried up in the recent past due to human activities? 
1. Aral Sea
2. Black Sea
3. Lake Baikal
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 and 3
Ans: D

54. “Rule of Law Index” is released by which of the following?
(a) Amnesty International
(b) International Court of Justice
(c) The office of UN Commissioner for Human Rights
(d) World Justice Project
Ans: D

55. Which one of the following links all the ATMs in India?
(a) Indian Banks’ Association
(b) National Securities Depository Limited
(c) National Payments Corporation of India
(d) Reserve Bank of India
Ans: C
Exp: National Financial Switch (NFS) is the largest network of shared automated teller machines(ATMs) in India.It was designed, developed and deployed by the Institute for Development and Research in Banking Technology (IDRBT) in 2004, with the goal of inter-connecting the ATMs in the country and facilitating convenience banking. It is run by the National Payments Corporation of India(NPCI).

56. Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements in not correct?
(a) A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions relating to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.
(b) A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the consolidated fund of India or the contingency fund of India.
(c) A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the contingency fund of India.
(d) A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving any guarantee by the government of India.
Ans: C
Exp: Article 110 states that a Bill is deemed to be a money bill if it contains provisions dealing with all or any of the following matters:
(i) The imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax
(ii) The regulation of the borrowing of money or the giving of any guarantee by the Government of India, or the amendment of the law with respect to any financial obligations undertaken or to be undertaken by the Government of India.

57. With reference to the election of the president of India, consider the following statements.
1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies from state to state.
2. The value of the vote of MPs of the LokSabha is more than the value of the vote of KPs of the RajyaSabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: C
Exp: Value of a vote and securing parity
(a) Art. 55 provides for uniformity in the scale of representation of different states at the
election of the President.
(b) Besides, there should also be parity between the states as a whole and the union.
(c) For this purpose the value of votes of an MLA and an MP is counted under the following formula:
The number of MPs in LokSabha are higher so value of vote is larger than RajyaSabha.

58. In the context, what is the implication of ratifying the ‘Additional protocol’ with the
international Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)’?
(a) The civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards.
(b) The military nuclear installations come under the inspection of IAEA.
(c) The country will have the privilege to but uranium from the Nuclear Suppliers Group(NSG).
(d) The country automatically becomes a member of the NSG
Ans: A
Exp: The Additional Protocol is not a stand-alone agreement, but rather a protocol to a safeguards agreement that provides additional tools for verification. In particular, it significantly increases the IAEA’s ability to verify the peaceful use of all nuclear material in States with comprehensive safeguards agreements.

59. Consider the following countries.
1. Australia
2. Canada
3. China
4. India
5. Japan
6. USA
Which of the above are among the ‘free-trade partners’ of ASEAN?
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(b) 3, 4, 5, and 6
(c) 1, 3, 4 and 5
(d) 2, 3, 4 and 6
Ans: C
Exp: ASEAN has existing free trade agreements with Australia, China, India, Japan, South Korea and New Zealand.

60. With reference to the ‘Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture (GACSA)’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. GACSA is an outcome of the Climate Summit held in Paris in 2015
2. Membership of GACSA does not create any binding obligations.
3. India was instrumental in the creation of GACSA
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: B
Exp: The Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture (GACSA), was launched on 23 September 2014 at the UN Climate Summit. GACSA is an independent alliance, governed by its members through a Strategic Committee and its co-Chairs. Since the 1 January FAO is hosting the Facilitation Unit of GACSA with is supported through a multi donor trust fund.

61. Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of “Digital India” plan of the Government ofIndia?
1. Formation of India’s own Internet companies like china did.
2. Established a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect big data to build their large data centers within our national geographical boundaries.
3. Connect many of our villages to the internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places and major tourist centers.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: B
Exp: Digital Infrastructure as a Utility to Every Citizen
• Availability of high speed internet as a core utility for delivery of services to citizens
• Cradle to grave digital identity that is unique, lifelong, online and authenticable to every
citizen
• Mobile phone & bank account enabling citizen participation in digital & financial space
• Easy access to a Common Service Centre
• Shareable private space on a public cloud
• Safe and secure cyber-space
Digital Empowerment of Citizens
• Universal digital literacy
• Universally accessible digital resources
• Availability of digital resources / services in Indian languages
• Collaborative digital platforms for participative governance
• Citizens not required to physically submit Govt. documents / certificates.

62. Consider the following pairs:
Towns sometimes mentioned in news Country
1. Aleppo – Syria
2. Kirkuk – Yemen
3. Mosul – Palestine
4. Mazar-i-sharif – Afghanistan
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 and 4
Ans: B

63. In the Federation established by The Government of India Act of 1935, residuary powers were given to the
(a) Federal Legislative
(b) Governor General
(c) Provincial Legislature
(d) Provincial Governors
Ans: B
Exp: The residuary power, however, were not allocated either to the Federation or to the Provinces but was under Section 105 of the Government of India, 1935, reserved to be allocated by the Governor-General in his discretion to the Federation or to the Provinces.

64. Consider the following statements:
1. The Speakers of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member of the Assembly
2. Whenever the legislative assembly is dissolved, the speaker shall vacate his/her office immediately.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: A
Exp: Speaker of Assembly vacates his office earlier in any of the following three cases:
1. if he ceases to be a member of the assembly;
2. if he resigns by writing to the deputy speaker; and
3. if he is removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the assembly.
Such a resolution can be moved only after giving 14 days advance notice.
Whenever the Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker does not vacate his office and continues till the newly- elected member meets.

65. Which one of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship between law and liberty?
(a) It there are more laws, there is less liberty.
(b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty.
(c) If there is liberty, laws have to be made by the people.
(d) If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger
Ans: B
Exp: It was a statement by John Locke and also endorsed by Leviathan theory Thomas Hobbes.

66. Consider the following statements:
1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any courtduring his term of office.
2. The emoluments and allowance of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: C
Exp: Like the President, the governor is also entitled to a number of privileges and immunities. He enjoys personal immunity from legal liability for his official acts. During his term of office, he is immune from any criminal proceedings, even in respect of his personal acts.

67. The well-known painting “BaniThani” belongs to the
(a) Bundi schools
(b) Jaipur school
(c) Kangra school
(d) Kishangarh school
Ans: D
Exp: BaniThani is an India miniature painting painted by Nihâl Chand from the Marwar school of Kishangarh. It portrays a woman who is elegant and graceful. The painting’s subject, BaniThani, was a singer and poet in Kishangarh in the time of kingSawant Singh (1748–1764). She has been compared to the Mona Lisa.

68. What is “Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD)” sometimes seen in the news?
(a) An Israeli radar system
(b) India’s indigenous anti missileProgramme.
(c) An American anti missile system
(d) A defense collaborations between Japan and South Korea
Ans: C
Exp: Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD), formerly Theater High Altitude Area Defense, is an American anti-ballistic missile defense system designed to shoot down short,medium-, and intermediate-range ballistic missiles in their terminal phase (descent or reentry)by intercepting with a hit-to-kill approach.

69. With references to cultural history of India, consider the following statements:

1. Most of the Tyagarajakritis are devotional songs in praise of lord Krishna.
2. Tyagaraja created several new ragas.
3. Annamacharya and Tyagaraj are contemporaries
4. Annamacharyakirtans are devotional songs in praise of Lord Venkateshwara

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: B
Exp: Tyagaraja composed thousands of devotional compositions, most in Telugu and in praise of Lord Rama many of which remain popular today. [2] Of special mention are five of his compositions called the PancharatnaKritis which are often sung in programs in his honour.Annamayya (22 May 1408 – 4 April 1503) was a 15th-century Hindu saint and is the earliest known Indian musician to compose songs called sankirtans in praise of the god Venkateswara, a form of Vishnu.

70. Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the “Rule of Law”?
1. Limitation of powers
2. Equality before law
3. People’s responsibility to the government
4. Liberty and civil rights
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1,2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: C
Exp: The Rule of Law identified eight principles to define it.
1. The law must be accessible and predictable.
2. Questions of legal rights should be resolved by the law and not the exercise of discretion.
3. The law should apply equally to all, except where objective differences justify differentiation.
4. Ministers must act within their powers and not exceed their limits.
5. The law must afford adequate protection of fundamental human rights.

71. With reference to the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), consider the following statements.
1. IRNSS has three satellites in geostationary and four satellites in geosynchronous orbits.
2. IRNSS covers entire India and about 5500 sq. km beyond its borders.
3. India will have its own satellite navigation system with full global coverage by the middle of 2019.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) None
Ans: A
Exp: ISRO opted for seven satellites — three in geostationary and four (as two pairs) in geosynchronous orbits — to provide the best navigation services. India has an independent regional navigation satellite capability that covers the entire country and an area extending about 1,500 sq. km beyond its border, with a positionaccuracy better than 20m in all weather conditions.

72. Consider the following phenomena:
1. Light is affected by gravity.
2. The universe is constantly expanding.
3. Matter warps its surrounding space-time.
Which of the above is/are the prediction/predictions of Albert Einstein’s General Theory of Relativity, often discussed in media?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: C
Exp: Einstein’s general theory of relativity is based on how we think gravity governs the behaviour of the Universe. We know that matter in the Universe warps the surrounding fabric of spacetime, and this warping effect is what we refer to as gravity.
According to Einstein’s theory, light, just like any other form of matter, is affected by gravity. That is, light also “falls” in a gravitational field. Just as a comet’s trajectory is deflected by the sun when it passes nearby, a ray of starlight grazing the sun would also be deflected or bent. When we (or our camera) look at the star, we presume that the path taken by the light is straight. The effect of the bending of the light, then, is to make the star appear to be located in a slightly different position in the sky.

73. With reference to the Genetically Modified mustard (GM mustard) developed in India,consider the following statements:
1. GM mustard has the genes of a soil bacterium that give the plant the property of pest-resistance to a wide variety of pests.
2. GM mustard has the genes that allow the plant cross-pollination and hybridization.
3. GM mustard has been developed jointly by the IARI and Punjab Agricultural University

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: B
Exp: DMH-11 is a Genetically Modified (GM) mustard hybrid. Hybrids are normally obtained by crossing two genetically diverse plants from the same species. The 1st-generation offspring resulting from it has higher yields than what either of the parents is individually capable of giving. But there is no natural hybridization system in mustard, unlike in, say, cotton,maize or tomato. This is because its flowers contain both the female (pistil) and male (stamen) reproductive organs, making the plant naturally self-pollinating.

74. Consider the following pairs:
Terms sometimes Context/Topic
1. Belle II experiment ___ Artificial Intelligence
2. Blockchain technology ___ Digital/Cryptocurrency
3. CRISPR – Cas9 ___ Particle Physics
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: B
Exp: The Belle II experiment is a particle physics experiment designed to study the properties of B mesons (heavy particles containing a bottom quark). CRISPR – Cas9 is related to biotechnology.

75. Which of the following statement best describes “carbon fertilization?
(a) Increased plant growth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
(b) Increased temperature of Earth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in theatmosphere
(c) Increased acidity of oceans as the result of increased concentration of carbon dioxidein the atmosphere
(d) Adaptation of all living beings on Earth to the climate change brought about by the increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
Ans: A
Exp: The CO2 fertilization effect or carbon fertilization effect suggests that the increase of carbondioxide in the atmosphere increases the rate of photosynthesis in plants. The effect variesdepending on the plant species, the temperature, and the availability of water and nutrients.

76. When the alarm of your smartphone rings in the morning, you wake up and tap it to stop the alarm which causes your geyser to be switched on automatically. The smart mirror in your bathroom shows the day’s weather and also indicates the level of water in your overhead tank. After you take some groceries from your refrigerator for making breakfast,it recognizes the shortage of stock in it and places an order for the supply of fresh grocery items. When you step out of your house and lock the door, all lights, fans, geysers and AC machines get switched off automatically. On your way to office, your car warns you about traffic congestion ahead and suggests an alternative route, and if you are late for a meeting,
it sends a message to your office accordingly.
In the context of emerging communication technologies, which one of the following terms
best applies to the above scenario?
(a) Border Gateway Protocol
(b) Internet of Things
(c) Internet Protocol
(d) Virtual Private Network.

Ans: B

77. Which reference to solar power production in India, consider the following statements:
1. India is the third largest in the world in the manufacture of silicon waters used in photovoltaic units.
2. The solar power tariffs are determined by the Solar Energy Corporation of India
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: D

78. The staple commodities of export by the English East India Company from Bengal in the middle of the 18th century were
(a) Raw cotton, oil-seeds and opium
(b) Sugar, salt, zinc and lead
(c) Copper, silver, gold, spices and tea
(d) Cotton, silk, saltpeter and opium
Ans: D
Exp: British-Indian territory was developed as a source of food stuff and raw material for Britain, which fueled rapid growth in its manufacturing sector, crucial to the emergence of a powerful capitalist economy. (Indian exports consisted of raw cotton, jute, silk, oilseeds, wheat, indigo and tea.)

79. Which one of the following is a very significant aspect of the Champaran Satyagraha?
(a) Active all-India participation of lawyers, students and women in the National Movement
(b) Active involvement of Dalit and Tribal communities of India in the National Movement
(c) Joining of peasant unrest to India’s National Movement
(d) Drastic decrease in the cultivation of plantation crops and commercial crops
Ans: C

80. Who among the following were the founders of the “Hind MazdoorSabha” established in
1948?
(a) B. Krishna Pillai, E.M.S. Namboodiripad and K.C. George
(b) Jayaprakash Narayan, DeenDayalUpadhyay and M.N. Roy
(c) C.P. RamaswamyIyer, K. Kamaraj and VeeresalingamPantulu
(d) Ashok Mehta, T.S. Ramanujam and G.G. Mehta
Ans: D
Exp: The HMS was founded in Howrah in west bengal on 29 December 1948, by socialists, Forward Bloc followers and independent unionists. Its founders included Basawon Singh (Sinha), Ashok Mehta, R.S. Ruikar, Maniben Kara, Shibnath Banerjee, R.A. Khedgikar, T.S. Ramanujam, V.S. Mathur, G.G. Mehta. R.S. Ruikar was elected president and Ashok Mehta general secretary. HMS absorbed the Royist Indian Federation of Labour and the Hind Mazdoor Panchayat, which was formed in 1948 by socialists leaving the increasingly communist dominated AITUC.

81. With reference to the religious practices in India, the “Sthanakvasi” sect belongs to
(a) Buddhism
(b) Jainism
(c) Vaishnavism
(d) Shaivism
Ans: B
Exp: Sthanakvasi is a sect of svetambara Jainism founded by a merchant named Lavaji in 1653 AD.

82. With reference to the cultural History of India, consider the following statements:
1. White marble was used in making BulandDarwaza and Khankah at FatehpurSikr.
2. Red sandstone and marble were used in making Bara Imambara and Rumi Darwaza
at Lucknow.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: A
Exp: The BulandDarwaza at FatehpurSikri is “the most iconic architectural accomplishment of Akbar’s reign. It incorporates almost all the essential features of Akbar’s architectural traditions: red sandstone, stone carvings, relief by inserting white marble Whereas Imambara instead of stones and marble, brick and lime were used. Stucco
ornamentation (gajkari) was used to decorate the monuments, giving it a deep relief effect even on flat walls.

83. Which one of the following foreign travelers elaborately discussed about diamonds and diamond mines on India
(a) Francois Bernier
(b) Jean Baptiste Tavernier
(c) Jean de Thevenot
(d) Abbe BarthelemyCarre
Ans: B
Exp: Jean-Baptiste Tavernier (1605 – 1689)was a 17th-century French gem merchant and traveler.Tavernier, a private individual and merchant traveling at his own expense, covered by his own account, 60,000 leagues (120,000 miles) in making six voyages to Persia and India between the years 1630 and 1668.

84. With reference to India history, who among the following is future Buddha, yet to come to
save the world?
(a) Avalokiteshvara
(b) Lokesvara
(c) Maitreya
(d) Padmapani
Ans: C
Exp: Maitreya is a bodhisattva who will appear on Earth in the future and is regarded as a future Buddha of this world 

85. Which one of the following statements does not apply to the system of Subsidiary Alliance
introduced by Lord Wellesley?
(a) To maintain a large standing army at other’ expense
(b) To keep India safe from Napoleonic danger
(c) To secure a fixed income for the Company
(d) To establish British paramountcy over the Indian States
Ans: C
Exp:
(i) Those native princes or rulers who would enter into Subsidiary Alliance would not be free to declare war against any other power, nor enter into negotiations with, any power, native or otherwise without the con-sent of the English,
(ii) The princes who were comparatively strong and powerful would be permitted to retain their armies, but their armies must be placed under British generals.

86.Consider the following statements:
1. Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is the amount that banks have to maintain in the form of their own funds to offset any loss that banks incur if the account-holders fail to repay dues.
2. CAR is decided by each individual bank.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: A

Exp: CAR is decided by RBI on the basis of Basel Committee recommendations

87. The identity platform ‘Aadhaar’ provides open “Application Programming Interfaces (APIs)”.
What does it imply?
1. It can be integrated into any electronic device.
2. Online authentication using iris is possible.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: C

Exp:Aadhaar provides open Application Programming Interfaces or APIs, which can be integrated easily into any electronic device. These APIs enable online authentication using a fingerprint or iris.

88. Very recently, in which of the following countries have lakhs of people either suffered from severe famine/acute malnutrition or died due to starvation caused by war/ethnic conflicts?
(a) Angola and Zambia
(b) Morocco and Tunisia
(c) Venezuela and Colombia
(d) Yemen and South Sudan
Ans: D

89. Regarding Wood’s Dispatch, which of the following statements are true?
1. Grants-in-Aid system was introduced
2. Establishment of universities was recommended.
3. English as a medium of instruction at all levels of education was recommended.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: A
Exp:The Despatch recommended the establishment of universities in the three Presidency towns of Calcutta, Bombay, and Madras. The universities were to be modeled after the London University and these were to have a senate consisting of a Chancellor, a Vice-Chancellor, and fellows who were nominated by the Government.

90. With reference to the Parliament of India which of the following Parliamentary Committees
scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being
properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation?
(a) Committee on Government Assurances
(b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation
(c) Rules Committee
(d) Business Advisory Committee
Ans: B
Exp:The functions of the Committee on Subordinate Legislation are to scrutinize and report to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, bye-laws etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated by Parliament are being properly exercised within such delegation.

91. Consider the following statements:
1. As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacherin a State, a person would be required to posses the minimum qualification laid downby the concerned State council of Teacher Education.
2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass aTeacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education Guidelines.
3. In India, more than 90% of teacher education institutions are directly under the State Governments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
Ans: B
Exp: Eligibility conditions of teachers are determined by the National Council for Teacher Education.

92. Consider the following pairs 
Tradition State
1. ChapcharKut festival ___ Mizoram
2. KhongjomParva ballad ___ Manipur
3. Thang-Ta dance ___ Sikkim
Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3
Ans: B
Exp: Thang Ta – is an ancient Manipuri Martial Art developed from the war environment of Manipur created by the Meitei. ChapcharKut is a spring festival of Mizoram. KhongjomParva is a style of ballad singing from Manipur.

93. Consider the following statements:
1. The food Safety and Standard Act, 2006 replaced the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954.
2. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is under the charge of Director General of Health Services in the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: A

Exp: The FSS Act is a bucket for all the older laws, rules and regulations for food safety. The FSS Act took 8 older acts into one umbrella.
1. Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954
2. Fruit Products Order, 1955
3. Meat Food Products Order, 1973
4. Vegetable Oil Products (Control) Order, 1947
5. Edible Oils Packaging (Regulation) Order 1988
6. Solvent Extracted Oil, De- Oiled Meal and Edible Flour (Control) Order, 1967
7. Milk and Milk Products Order, 1992
Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is an autonomous body establishedunder the Ministry of Health, Family Welfare, Government of India. The FSSAI has been established under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 which is a consolidating statute related to food safety and regulation in India. FSSAI is responsible for protecting and promoting public health through the regulation and supervision of food safety.

94. The term “two state solution” is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of
(a) China
(b) Israel
(c) Iraq
(d) Yemen
Ans: B
Exp: The two-state solution to the Israeli–Palestinian conflict envisions an independent State of Palestine alongside the State of Israel, west of the Jordan River.

95. With reference to the provisions made under the National Food Security Act, 2013, consider the following statements:
1. The families coming under the category of ‘below poverty line (BPL)’ only are eligible to receive subsidised food grains
2. The eldest woman in a household, of age 18 years or above, shall be the head of the Household for the purpose of issuance of a ratio card.
3. Pregnant women and lactating mothers are entitled to a ‘take-home ration’ of 1600 calories per day during pregnancy and for six months thereafter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
Ans: B
Exp: The oldest woman of the family (who must be at least 18 years of age) will be considered the head of the household when ration cards are being issued.

96. India enacted The Geographical indicates of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 in order to comply with the obligations to
(a) ILO
(b) IMF
(c) UNCTAD
(d) WTO
Ans: D
Exp: Under the Uruguay and Singapore round agreement, the creation of TRIPS agreement and
its expansion has brought the following under WTO rulings.
1. Copyright and Related Rights
2. Trademarks
3. Geographical Indications
4. Industrial Designs
5. Patents
6. Layout-Designs (Topographies) of Integrated Circuits
7. Protection of Undisclosed Information
8. Control of Anti-Competitive Practices in Contractual Licenses
Thus the 1999 act for protection of GI was formed

97. Consider the following statements:
1. In India, State Governments do not have the power to auction non-coal mines.
2. Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand do not have gold mines.
3. Rajasthan has iron ore mines.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
Ans: D
Exp: State governments have the power to auction non-coal mines. Jharkhand and Andhra
Pradesh have two of the three active gold mines. Bhilwara in Rajasthan has an iron ore mine.

98. With reference to digital payments, consider the following statements:
1. BHIM app allows the user to transfer money to anyone with a UPI enabled bank account.
2. While a chip-pin debit card has four factors of authentication, BHIM app has only two factors of authentication.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: A
Exp: Bharat Interface for Money (BHIM) is a payment app that lets you make simple, easy and quick transactions using Unified Payments Interface (UPI). You can make direct bank payments to anyone on UPI using their UPI ID or scanning their QR with the BHIM app. You can also request money through the app from a UPI ID.

99. Among the following cities, which one lies on a longitude closest to that of Delhi?
(a) Bengaluru
(b) Hyderabad
(c) Nagpur
(d) Pune
Ans: A
Exp: Both Delhi and Bengaluru fall on same longitude

100. International Labour Organization’s Conventions 138 and 182 are related to
(a) Child labour
(b) Adaptation of agricultural practices to global climate change
(c) Regulation of food prices and food security
(d) Gender parity at the workplace
Ans: A

Exp: International Labour Organization’s Conventions 138 and 182 are related to Child labour.