Assuming P != NP, which of the following is true ? (A) NP-complete = NP (B) NP-completeP = (C) NP-hard = NP (D) P = NP-complete
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
The answer is B (no NP-Complete problem can be solved in polynomial time). Because, if one NP-Complete problem can be solved in polynomial time, then all NP problems can solved in polynomial time. If that is the case, then NP and P set become same which contradicts the given condition.
Related Article:
NP-Completeness | Set 1 (Introduction)
P versus NP problem (Wikipedia)
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