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UPSC Prelims 2022 General Studies Paper I With Detailed Solution

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  • Last Updated : 17 Sep, 2022
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The UPSC exam is one of India’s most difficult exams to pass, but it’s not impossible if you use the combination of hard work, appropriate strategy, and efforts directed in the right way. This section offers UPSC Prelims solved previous year’s question papers. It will give you an idea of what to expect in the examination and how to cover the topics. The UPSC Prelims are divided into two parts: Paper I and Paper II, which are held on the same day. This is an objective paper with 100 multiple-choice questions to complete in two hours. Each question is worth two points. For each incorrect response, 0.66 points will be deducted as negative marks. 

Kindly find the UPSC Prelims 2022 – General Studies Paper 1 with Solution of ‘Set-A’ which was conducted on 5th June 2022. Wish you all the best !!

1. “Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of leading by which one of the following?
(a) Asian Development Bank
(b) International Monetary Fund
(c) United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative
(d) World Bank

Answer: (b)
Explanation: The RFI is an IMF financing system providing member nations with emergency assistance. All members experiencing an urgent balance of payments need, get immediate financial aid with minimal conditions. A 50 percent yearly quota limitation and a 100 percent cumulative quota limit apply to access under the RFI. 
Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

2. With reference to the Indian economy consider the following statements:
1. An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of the rupee.
2. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness.
3. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER.

Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)
Explanation: A decrease in this index reflects a depreciation in the value of the rupee, while an increase in the index reflects an appreciation in the value of the rupee. REER is also an important parameter to measure the changes taking place in the Indian economy.
NEER = Domestic Exchange Rate in terms of Special Drawing Rights (SDR) / Foreign Exchange Rate in terms of Special Drawing Rights (SDR)
REER = NEER × (Domestic Price Index/Foreign Price Index). 
Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

3. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:
1. If the inflation is too high, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities.
2. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market.
3. If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The Reserve Bank of India sells assets in the money market to absorb excess liquidity from the market to manage inflation.
When the rupee falls drastically in value, the Reserve Bank expands the dollar supply.
When interest rates fall in foreign markets such as the United States or the European Union, it impacts the buying of dollars in other nations such as India.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b). 

More information regarding this topic.

4. With reference to the “G20 Common Framework”, consider the following statements:
1. It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club.
2. It is an initiative to support Low-Income Countries with unsustainable debt.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)
Explanation: The Common Framework for Debt Treatment Beyond the DSSI (Common Framework) is an initiative supported by the G20 in association with the Paris Club. It aims to support, in a structural way, low-income countries with unsustainable debt.
Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

5. With reference to the Indian economy, what are the advantages of “Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs)”?
1. Government can reduce the coupon rates on its borrowing by way of IIBs.
2. IIBs provide protection to investors from uncertainty regarding inflation.
3. The interest received as well as capital gains on IIBs are not taxable.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a)
Explanation: The interest rate will be protected from inflation by paying a fixed coupon rate on the principal adjusted against inflation and the government can reduce the coupon rates on its borrowings in the form of IIBs.  Capital gains tax has to be paid if IIBs are sold in the secondary market and profit is made.
Therefore, the correct answer is  (a). 

6. With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce. firms, operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as market-places.
2. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)
Explanation: Based on the rules of e-commerce, E-commerce entities providing a marketplace shall not exercise ownership over the inventory. Such ownership would render the business in an inventory-based model. 
An e-commerce entity will not allow more than 25% of the sales affected by a single seller through its marketplace. Hence, this limit has been fixed.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b). 

7. Which of the following activities constitute the real sector in the economy?
1. Farmers harvesting their crops
2. Textile mills converting raw cotton into fabrics
3. A commercial bank lending money to a trading company
4. A corporate body issuing Rupee Denominated Bonds overseas

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2, 3, and 4 only
(c) 1, 3, and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (a)
Explanation: Real sectors of the economy include enterprises (non-financial corporations), households, and non-profits that serve families.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a). 

8. Which one of the following situations best reflects “Indirect Transfers” often talked about in media recently with reference to India?
(a) An Indian company investing in a foreign enterprise and paying taxes to the foreign country on the profits arising out of its investment
(b) A foreign company investing in India and paying taxes to the country of its base on the profits arising out of its investment
(c) An Indian company purchases tangible assets in a foreign country and sells such assets after their value increases and transfers the proceeds to India
(d) A foreign company transfers shares and such shares derive their substantial value from assets located in India

Answer: (d)
Explanation: The term ‘indirect transfer’, often discussed in the mass media, refers to situations where foreign entities hold shares or assets in India, the shares of such foreign entities are transferred instead of a direct transfer of the assets. 
Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

9. With reference to the expenditure made by an organization or a company, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Acquiring new technology is capital expenditure.
2. Debt financing is considered a capital expenditure, while equity financing is considered a revenue expenditure.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a)
Explanation: Capital expenditure is the amount of money a company uses to acquire, upgrade, and maintain physical assets such as property, plants, buildings, technology, or equipment. 
equity financing is a method of raising funds to meet the liquidity needs of an organization by selling the stock of a company in exchange for cash, hence it is considered a capital expenditure. 
Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

10. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:
1. A share of the household financial savings goes towards government borrowings.
2. Dated securities issued at market-related rates in auctions form a large component of internal debt.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only 
(b) 2 only 
(c) Both 1 and 2 
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)
Explanation: As part of India’s public accounts, a portion of family financial savings is used to finance government borrowings. It is mostly made up of provident funds.
Market debt-dated securities are the main instrument used for financing the fiscal deficit.
Therefore, the correct answer is (c). 

11. Consider the following statements:
1. Pursuant to the report of the H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed.
2. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves.
3. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt.
4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 3 only

Answer: (b)
Explanation: The 1963 Bill prepared by the Sanyal Committee was reviewed by a Joint Committee of Parliament (1969-70). Based on this the Contempt of Court Act, 1971 was enacted. Article 129 and 215 of the Constitution empowered the Supreme Court and high court to punish for contempt of self respectively. The expression ‘contempt of court’ is not defined by the Constitution. In India, it is the Parliament that has the power to legislate over Contempt of Court.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b). 

12. With reference to India, consider the following statements :
1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognized as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates.
2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only 
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)
Explanation: Advocates include government lawyers, law companies, business attorneys, and patent attorneys.
Bar councils have the authority to establish regulations governing legal education and law college accreditation.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

13. consider the following statements:
1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India.
2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent.
3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a)1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)
Explanation: A Constitution Amendment Bill can be introduced by a minister or a private member and does not require the prior recommendation of the President. The President is bound to give assent/assent to the bill. He can neither keep the bill with him nor send it to the Parliament for reconsideration.
The Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed separately in each house. 
Therefore, the correct answer is (b). 

14. Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State, and Deputy Minister.
2. The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)
Explanation: There are three categories of ministers in the Council of Ministers – Cabinet Ministers, Ministers of State, and Deputy Ministers. The total number of members of the Council of Ministers including the Prime Minister shall not exceed 15 percent of the total strength of the Lok Sabha This provision was included by the 91st Constitutional Amendment Bill, 2003. 
Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

15. Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha?
1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency
2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers
3. To impeach the President of India

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only

Answer: (b)
Explanation: Lok Sabha can pass a no-confidence motion against the Council of Ministers. When the Lok Sabha passes a no-confidence motion against the Council of Ministers, all ministers (including ministers from the Rajya Sabha) have to resign.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

16. With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements:
1. The law specifies that a .nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House.
2. The law does not provide any time frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)
Explanation: If any complaint is received regarding the party of the Speaker of the House, any other member elected by the House has the right to decide in this regard. Therefore, this law does not prescribe any period within which the presiding officer has to decide the case of defection
Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

17. Consider the following statements:
1. The Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India.
2. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d)
Explanation: The Solicitor General of India assists the Attorney General in carrying out official responsibilities. 
The procedure for removal of the Attorney General is not mentioned in the Constitution. He holds office during the pleasure of the President (may be removed by the President at any time). Therefore, the Attorney General of India does not resign on the resignation of the government.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

18. With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements: 
1. Mandamus will not lie against a private organization unless it is entrusted with a public duty. 
2. Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company.
3. Any public-minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the Writ of Quo Warranto.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only 
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)
Explanation: Mandamus is a judicial remedy in the form of an order from a court. No mandate can be issued against any private organization unless it has been entrusted with any public work. 
The writ of Quo Warranto empowers any person other than the aggrieved person to seek redress. Therefore, any public-prone person can be a petitioner to move the court for obtaining a writ of right.
Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

19. With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements :
1. Private and public hospitals must adopt it.
2. As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately. 
3. It has seamless portability across the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)
Explanation: Ayushman Bharat is a flagship scheme of the country, which was launched as per the recommendation of National Health Policy 2017 to achieve the vision of Universal Health Coverage (UHC). It aims to provide Digital Health ID to all Indian citizens to help public and private hospitals and insurance firms, and citizens access health records electronically when required.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

20. With reference to the Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:
1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix.
2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.
3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings.
4. The well-established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of a Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 2 and 4 only

Answer: (a)
Explanation: The Speaker sets the date for the Deputy Speaker’s election. Since the 11th Lok Sabha, the Speaker has been appointed by the ruling party, while the Deputy Speaker is appointed by the largest opposition party. When the Speaker’s office is vacant, the Deputy Speaker assumes responsibility. Any member may provide notice in writing to the Secretary-General of a motion that another member be elected as the Deputy Speaker of the House and the proposal can be seconded by a third member.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

21. Among the following crops, which one is the most important anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide?
(a) Cotton
(b) Rice
(c) Sugarcane
(d) Wheat

Answer: (b)
Explanation: Paddy is the most important anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b). 

22. “System of Rice Intensification” of cultivation, in which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields are practiced, results in:
1. Reduced seed requirement
2. Reduced methane production
3. Reduced electricity consumption

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)
Explanation: The main result of this method is the “Paddy Intensification System” of agriculture, in which the paddy fields are alternately milled and dried, with less seed requirement, less methane production, and less electricity consumption.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d). 

23. Which one of the following lakes of West Africa has become dry and turned into a desert?
(a) Lake Victoria
(b) Lake Faguibine
(c) Lake Oguta
(d) Lake Volta

Answer: (b)
Explanation: According to the United Nations Climate Change Conference-COP 26, Lake Faguibine in West Africa has dried up and turned into a desert.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b). 

24. Gandikota canyon of South India was created by which one of the following rivers?
(a) Cauvery
(b) Manjira
(c) Pennar 
(d) Tungabhadra

Answer: (c)
Explanation: Gandikota is a Twin village in the Cuddapah district of Andhra Pradesh, popularly known as the ‘Fresh Valley of India’. Surrounded by the Pennar River on the right
Therefore, the correct answer is (c). 

25. Consider the following pairs :

PeakMountains
1. Namcha BarwaGarhwal Himalaya 
2. Nanda DeviKumaon Himalaya 
3. NokrekSikkim Himalaya

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only

Answer: (b)
Explanation: Nanda Devi peaks are a part of the Kumaon Himalayas.
The Garhwal Himalayas extend from Nanga Parbat in the west to Namcha Barwa Peak in the east.
The Namcha Barwa mountain range comes under Tibet.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b). 

26. The term “Levant” often heard in the news roughly corresponds to which of the following regions?
(a) Region along the eastern Mediterranean shores
(b) Region along North African shores stretching from Egypt to Morocco
(c) Region along the Persian Gulf and the Horn of Africa
(d) The entire coastal areas of the Mediterranean Sea

Answer: (a)
Explanation: The Levant is a region on the eastern Mediterranean coast that includes modern-day Israel, Jordan, Lebanon, Syria, and some surrounding territories.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

27. Consider the following countries:
1. Azerbaijan
2. Kyrgyzstan 
3. Tajikistan 
4. Turkmenistan 
5. Uzbekistan

Which of the above have borders with Afghanistan?
(a) 1, 2 and 5 only
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 3, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: (c)
Explanation: It is bordered by Iran and Turkmenistan to the west, Uzbekistan, Tajikistan, and Kyrgyzstan to the north, Pakistan to the east and south, and China to the northeast of Wakhan Province.
Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

28. With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1. Monazite is a source of rare-earth.
2. Monazite contains thorium.
3. Monazite occurs naturally in the entire Indian coastal sands in India.
4. In India, Government bodies only can process or export monazite.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only 
(c) 3 and 4 only 
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (b)
Explanation: Monazite is an important ore of the rare earth elements thorium, lanthanum, and cerium. It is not found in all the coastal areas of India. Private firms are prohibited from processing or exporting monazite. It remains a government monopoly, placed under the purview of the Department of Atomic Energy.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b). 

29. In the northern hemisphere, the longest day of the year normally occurs in the:
(a) First half of the month of June
(b) Second half of the month of June
(c) First half of the month of July
(d) Second half of the month of July

Answer: (b)
Explanation: In the Northern Hemisphere (June 21) ie the second fortnight of June is the longest day of the year.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b). 

30. Consider the following pairs:
Wetland/Lake – Location
1. Hokera Wetland – Punjab
2. Renuka Wetland – Himachal Pradesh
3. Rudrasagar Lake – Tripura
4. Sasthamkotta Lake- Tamil Nadu

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) Only three pairs
(d) All four pairs

Answer: (b)
Explanation: 1. Hoker Wetlands -Jammu and Kashmir, Renuka Wetlands -Himachal Pradesh, Rudrasagar Lake- Tripura, Sasthamkotta Lake -Kerala
Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

31. Consider the following :
1. Aarogya Setu
2. CoWIN
3. DigiLocker
4. DIKSHA

Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2, 3, and 4 only
(c) 1, 3, and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (d)
Explanation:  Aarogya Setu has been transparent and secure and in line with India’s open-source software policy.
The CoWin platform is being made open-source, available to all peoples and countries.
Diksha Portal was launched by the Vice President of India on September 5, 2017. It is an open-source platform that is available for all the states and union territories across the country.
DigiLocker is a significant initiative that aims to transform India into a digitally empowered society and knowledge economy. It’s a platform for the issuance and verification of documents and certificates in a digital manner, thus eliminating the use of physical documents.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d). 

32. With reference to Web 3.0, consider the following statements:
1. Web 3.0 technology enables people to control their own data.
2. In the Web 3.0 world, there can be blockchain-based social networks.
3. Web 3.0 is operated by users collectively rather than a corporation.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)
Explanation: 
Web 3.0 is a decentralized Internet-based on blockchain technology where users will have an ownership stake in the platforms and applications that control the technology platform.
The term Web3 was first used by Gavin Wood, the founder of the blockchain technology company Ethereum (Ethereum), in the year 2014.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d). 

33. With reference to “Software as a Service (SaaS)”, consider the following statements:
1. SaaS buyers can customize the user interface and can change data fields.
2. SaaS users can access their data through their mobile devices.
3. Outlook, Hotmail, and Yahoo! Mail are forms of SaaS.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)
Explanation: SaaS is a method of software delivery that allows access to data from any device with an Internet connection and a web browser. In this web-based model, software vendors host and maintain the server, database, and code that makes up the application.
The common form of SaaS usage is a web-based email service such as Outlook, Hotmail, or Yahoo! Mail.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

34. Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media?
(a) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space.
(b) A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions.
(c) A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth.
(d) A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same speed and places a probe on its surface.

Answer: (c)
Explanation: The FOBS is a warhead delivery system that uses low earth orbits towards its target destination. Just before reaching the target, it undergoes a retrograde engine burn.
Therefore, the correct answer is (c) 

35. Which one of the following is the context in which the term “qubit” is mentioned?
(a) Cloud Services
(b) Quantum Computing
(c) Visible Light Communication Technologies
(d) Wireless Communication Technologies

Answer: (b)
Explanation: Quantum computers calculate in ‘cubits’. They use the properties of quantum mechanics which is the science that governs the behavior of matter at the atomic scale.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b) 

36. Consider the following communication technologies:
1. Closed-circuit Television
2. Radio Frequency Identification
3. Wireless Local Area Network

Which of the above are considered Short Range devices/technologies?
(a) 1 and 2 only 
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)
Explanation: Short-range devices are radio equipment that offers a low risk of interference with other radio services because of their low communication power and range. It can be used in different types of wireless devices, like, Closed-Circuit Television, Cordless audio equipment, Radio Frequency Identification, Wireless Local Area Network, and Telemetry.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b) 

37. Consider the following statements:
1. Biofilms can form on medical implants within human tissues.
2. Biofilms can form on food and food processing surfaces.
3. Biofilms can exhibit antibiotic resistance.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only 
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)
Explanation: Biofilms form within medical implants and human tissue in the form of cystic fibrosis. It occurs rapidly in the food industry environment. Microbial cells within the biolayer exhibited 10–1000 times greater antibiotic resistance than planktonic cells.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d). 

38. Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics:
1. Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast.
2. The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut.
3. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (c)
Explanation: Probiotics are a combination of live beneficial bacteria and/or yeasts that naturally live within the body. Acidophilus is a probiotic bacteria that is naturally present in the human intestine and other parts of the body. There are trillions of bacteria and other micro-organisms present in the human intestine. There are many ways humans can take probiotic supplements to help the digestive system.
Therefore, the correct answer is (c)

39. In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent the COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements:
1. The Serum Institute of India produced a COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using an mRNA platform.
2. Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using a vector-based platform.
3. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen-based vaccine.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)
Explanation: Covishield is based on the platform that uses a recombinant, replication-free chimpanzee adenovirus vector encoding the SARS-CoV-2 spike (S) glycoprotein. Sputnik V is the world’s first registered vaccine based on a well-studied human adenovirus vector platform. Covaxin is an inactivated viral vaccine that has been developed using whole-virion inactivated Vero cell-derived technology. They contain dormant viruses, which cannot infect a person but can still teach the immune system to create a defense mechanism against active viruses.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b)

40. If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth?
1. GPS and navigation systems could fail.
2. Tsunamis could occur in equatorial regions.
3. Power grids could be damaged.
4. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth.
5. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet.
6. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed.
7. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
(b) 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only
(c) 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7

Answer: (c)
Explanation:  It has an impact on GPS navigation, mobile phone communications, and satellite television. Power grids and electrical networks in numerous parts of the world might be disrupted by the flares. The flare’s high-energy particles may cause specific atoms in the Earth’s atmosphere to light, resulting in auroras throughout Central Europe and North America. Solar flares and storms heat and stretch the atmosphere and these impacts might extend to satellite orbits. Solar flares cause interference with short-wave radios, generating more rays.
Therefore, the correct answer is (c)

41. “Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the pledges of different emission reduction countries is a:
(a) Database created by a coalition of research organizations
(b) Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change”
(c) Committee Framework Change”
(d) Agency promoted and financed by United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank under “United Nations Convention on Climate

Answer: (a)
Explanation: The Climate Action Tracker is a scientific study that analyses government climate action and compares it to the Paris Agreement goal. Since 2009, the CAT has been offering impartial analyses to policymakers as a cooperation of two organisations, Climate Analytics and NewClimate Institute.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

42. Consider the following statements:
1. “The Climate Group” is an international non-profit organization that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them.
2. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”.
3. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals.
4. Some Indian companies are members of EP100.
5. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: (b)
Explanation: Climate Group is a non-profit organisation that was created in 2003. Its purpose is to establish and operate networks to accelerate climate action. EP100 is a global programme run by the international non-profit Climate Group that brings together more than 120 energy-smart companies dedicated to monitoring and reporting on energy efficiency gains. The first Indian firm to join the EP100 project was Mahindra & Mahindra. Climate Group serves as the Under2 Coalition’s secretariat, collaborating with governments to expedite climate action.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

43. “If rainforests and tropical forests are the lungs of the Earth, then surely wetlands function as its kidneys.” Which one of the following functions of wetlands best reflects the above statement?
(a) The water cycle in wetlands involves surface runoff, subsoil percolation, and evaporation.
(b) Algae form the nutrient base upon which fish, crustaceans, mollusks, birds, reptiles, and mammals thrive.
(c) Wetlands play a vital role in maintaining sedimentation balance and soil stabilization.
(d) Aquatic Plants absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients.

Answer: (d)
Explanation: Wetlands are important filters. They trap sediments, remove pollutants, purify water, and control erosion. Thus, wetlands play an important role in maintaining sediment balance and soil stabilization.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

44. In the context of WHO Air Quality Guidelines, consider the following statements:
1. The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 pg/m3 and the annual mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 5 pg/m3.
2. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during periods of inclement weather.
3. PM10 can penetrate the lung and enter the bloodstream.
4. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 2 only

Answer: (b)
Explanation: Under WHO air quality guidelines, the 24 mean PM2.5 should not exceed 15 µg/m3 and the PM2.5 annual average should not exceed 5 µg/m3.
PM10 can enter the lungs, while PM2.5 can cross the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream.
Ozone is one of the major components of photochemical smog/photochemical smog at the ground level. Ozone pollution levels are highest during the sunny season.
Excessive ozone in the air can have a significant impact on human health. It can cause breathing problems, cause asthma, and lung diseases.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

45. With reference to “GuCChi” sometime, mentioned in the news, consider the following statements:
1. It is a fungus.
2. It grows in some Himalayan forest areas.
3. It is commercially cultivated in the Himalayan foothills of north-eastern India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only 
(b) 3 only 
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (c)
Explanation: The Gucchi mushroom is a species of fungus in the family Morchellaceae of the Ascomycota. They are light yellow in color.
It cannot be cultivated commercially and grows in the foothills of Himachal Pradesh, Uttaranchal, and Jammu & Kashmir.
Therefore, the correct answer is (c). 

46. With reference to polyethylene terephthalate, the use of which is so widespread in our daily lives, consider the following statements:
1. Its fibers can be blended with wool and cotton fibers to reinforce their properties.
2. Containers made of it can be used to store any alcoholic beverage.
3. Bottles made of it can be recycled into other products.
4. Articles made of it can be easily disposed of by incineration without causing greenhouse gas emissions.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 4 
(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (a)
Explanation: PET is a type of polyester. It is used in making plastic bottles and containers etc. for the packaging of food items and beverages etc. They are often used in durable-press blends with other fibers such as rayon, wool, and cotton, which reinforce the inherent properties of these fibers. After PET is recycled, it can be reused for the purpose for which it was created, and methods have been devised to break down the polymer into its precursor chemical components for resynthesis in PET.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a). 

47. Which of the following is not a bird?
(a) Golden Mahseer
(b) Indian Nightjar
(c) Spoonbill
(d) White Ibis

Answer: (a)
Explanation: The word Mahseer is made up of two words Mahi – fish, and Sher – tiger, that is why it is also called tiger among fishes. 
Therefore, the correct answer is (a). 

48. Which of the following are nitrogen-fixing plants?
1. Alfalfa
2. Amaranth
3. Chickpea 
4. Clover 
5. Purslane (Kulfa) 
6. Spinach

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 3, and 4 only
(b) 1, 3, 5, and 6 only
(c) 2, 4, 5, and 6 only
(d) 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6

Answer: (a)
Explanation: Amaranth, spinach, and purslane are not nitrogen-fixing plants, thus supply of nitrogen through fertilizers is necessary in order for them to grow and develop properly.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

49. “Biorock technology” is talked about in which one of the following situations?
(a) Restoration of damaged coral reefs
(b) Development of building materials using plant residues
(c) Identification of areas for exploration/extraction of shale gas
(d) Providing salt licks for wild animals in forests/protected areas  

Answer: (a)
Explanation: This technology works by passing a small amount of electricity through electrodes in the water. When a positively charged anode and a negatively charged cathode are placed on the ocean floor, calcium ions and carbonate ions combine to form calcium carbonate. Coral larvae grow rapidly in the presence of calcium carbonate.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a). 

50. The “Miyawaki method” is well known for the:
(a) Promotion of commercial farming in arid and semi-arid areas
(b) Development of gardens using genetically modified flora
(c) Creation of mini forests in urban areas
(d) Harvesting wind energy on coastal areas and on sea surfaces

Answer: (c)
Explanation: The pioneer of the Miyawaki system is the Japanese botanist Akira Miyawaki. This scheme has revolutionized the concept of urban afforestation by converting backyards into small gardens in front or behind the houses. In this method, native species of plants are planted close to each other, which apart from occupying less space, also helps in the growth of other plants. Due to the density, these plants block the sunlight from coming to the earth, due to which weeds do not grow on the earth. 
Therefore, the correct answer is (c). 

51. In the Government of India Act 1919, the functions of Provincial Government were divided into “Reserved” and “Transferred” subjects. Which of the following were treated as “Reserved” subjects?
1. Administration of Justice
2. Local Self-Government
3. Land Revenue
4. Police

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4

Answer: (c)
Explanation: According to the Government of India Act, 1919 the subjects were divided into two lists: “Reserve List” which included subjects such as law and order, finance, land revenue, irrigation, etc., while education, health, local government, industry, agriculture Topics like Excise Duty, etc were included in the “Transferred List”.
Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

52. In medieval India, the term “Fanam” referred to:
(a) Clothing
(b) Coins
(c) Ornaments
(d) Weapons

Answer: (b)
Explanation: In medieval Travancore, the Fanam and Chakram coins were the regular unit of currency and were used extensively for trade.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

53. Consider the following freedom fighters:
1. Barindra Kumar Ghosh
2. Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee
3. Rash Behari Bose

Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only

Answer: (d)
Explanation: Barindra Kumar Ghosh was a founding member of Jugantar/Yugantar, a Bengali revolutionary movement. Jogesh Chandra became a member of Anushilan Samiti. He was one of the founding members of the Hindustan Republican Association. Rash Behari Bose was an Indian revolutionary leader against the British Raj. He was one of the main organizers of the Ghadar rebellion.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

54. With reference to the proposals of Cripps Mission, consider the following statements:
1. The Constituent Assembly would have members nominated by the Provincial Assemblies as well as the Princely States.
2. Any Province, which is not prepared to accept the new Constitution would have the right to sign a separate agreement with 3. Britain regarding its future status.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)
Explanation: A Constituent Assembly would be made up of members chosen by the Lower House of the Legislature and delegates nominated by the rulers of the Princely States. Further, the mission proposed that any province not wishing to join the Indian dominion could form a separate federation that could have a separate constitution. 
Therefore, the correct answer is (b). 

55. With reference to Indian history, consider the following texts:
1. Nettipakarana 
2. Parishishtaparvan
3. Avadanasataka 
4. Trishashtilakshana Mahapurana

Which of the above are Jaina texts?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (b)
Explanation: The Nettipkara is a mythological Buddhist text. Parishishtaparvan is a 12th-century Sanskrit epic by Hemachandra that chronicles the history of the early Jain teachers. The Avadanasataka is a compilation in Sanskrit of one hundred Buddhist legends. The Trishtilakshana Mahapurana is a major Jain text composed mainly by Acharya Jinasena during the rule of the Rashtrakutas.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

56. With reference to Indian history consider the following pairs:
Historical person  –  Known as
1. Aryadeva – Jaina scholar
2. Dignaga – Buddhist scholar
3. Nathamuni – Vaishnava scholar

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) None of the pairs
(b) Only one pair 
(c) Only two pairs 
(d) All three pairs

Answer: (c)
Explanation: Aryadeva was a Mahayana Buddhist monk, a disciple of Nagarjuna, and a Madhyamaka philosopher. Dignaga was an Indian Buddhist scholar. Sri Ranganathamuni popularly known as Sriman Nathamuni (823 CE–951 CE), was a Vaishnava theologian who collected and compiled the Naalayira Divya Prabandham.
Therefore, the correct answer is (c). 

57. With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements:
1. The first Mongol invasion of India happened during the reign of Jalal-ud-din Khalji
2. During the reign of Ala-ud-din Khalji, one Mongol assault marched up to Delhi and besieged the city.
3. Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq temporarily lost portions of the northwest of his kingdom to Mongols.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 
(b) 2 only 
(c) 1 and 3 
(d) 3 only

Answer: (b)
Explanation: During the reign of Iltumish, Changez Khan invaded India for the first time. He was the Mongol Empire’s founder.
In 1299, the Mongols invaded India under the leadership of Qutlug Khan. This was the first attempt by the Mongols to destroy Delhi. The Mongols entered a place called Killi, located six miles north of Delhi. 
The last significant Mongol invasion took place during the reign of Sultan Muhammad Tughluq under the leadership of Tarmashirin. Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq attacked Tarmashirin and sent him back across the Indus which remained the Mongol frontier.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b). 

58. With reference to Indian history, who of the following was known as “Kulah-Daran”?
(a) Arab merchants
(b) Qalandars 
(c) Persian calligraphists
(d) Sayyids

Answer: (d)
Explanation: The Sayyids wore a pointed cap (Kulah), hence they were known as Kulah-Daran.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d).  

59. With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements:
1. The Dutch established their factories/warehouses on the east coast on lands granted to them by Gajapati rulers.
2. Alfonso de Albuquerque captured Goa from the Bijapur Sultanate.
3. The English East India Company established a factory at Madras on a plot of land leased from a representative of the 
4. Vijayanagara empire.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)
Explanation: The Ganga dynasty was followed by another dynasty in Odisha, called the Suryavanshi Gajapatis. Kakharua Dev, the last ruler of this dynasty, was assassinated in 1541 by Govind Vidyadhar, who founded the Bhoi dynasty. Dutch East India Company was established in 1602. 
In January 1510 Alfonso de Albuquerque attacked Goa. At that time the power of Goa was in the hands of the ruler of Bijapur, who was engaged in suppressing the rebellion in his own state. Taking advantage of the opportunity, Alfonso de Albuquerque captured Goa.
Francis Day leased Madras from Chandragiri, a representative of the Vijayanagara Empire, in 1639. There he built Fort St George. 
Therefore, the correct answer is (b).
 
60. According to Kautilya’s Arthashastra, which of the following are correct?
1. A person could be a slave as a result of judicial punishment.
2. If a female slave bore her master a son, she was legally free.
3. If a son born to a female slave was fathered by her master, the son was entitled to the legal status of the master’s son.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only 
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)
Explanation: The ‘Arthashastra’ states that a man can be a slave by birth, by voluntarily selling himself, by being imprisoned in war, or as a result of judicial punishment. If a maidservant gave birth to a child of her master, she was entitled to freedom from bondage.
When a maidservant gives birth to a child of her master, both the child and its mother shall be considered free at once. If the mother is to be in bondage for sustenance, her brother and sister will be set free.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

61. Consider the following statements:
1. Tight monetary policy of the US Federal Reserve could lead to capital flight.
2. Capital flight may increase the interest cost of firms with existing External Commercial borrowing (ECBs).
3. Devaluation of domestic currency decreases the currency risk associated with ECBs.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a)
Explanation: The US Federal Reserve’s tight monetary policy may result in capital flight. It’s also known as the ‘Taper Tantrum.’ The central bank tightens policy by raising short-term interest rates through policy changes in the discount rate and the federal funds rate. A rise in interest rates increases the cost of borrowing and effectively reduces its risk. 
Therefore, the correct answer is (a). 

62. Consider the following States:
1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Kerala 
3. Himachal Pradesh 
4. Tripura

How many of the above are generally known as tea-producing States?
(a) Only one State
(b) Only two States
(c) Only three States
(d) All four States

Answer: (c)
Explanation: According to the annual report of the Tea Board of India for the year 2019-2020, tea-producing states are Assam, Tripura, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, and Himachal Pradesh.
Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

63. Consider the following statements:
1. In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India.
2. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company.
3. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only 
(b) 2 and 3 only 
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)
Explanation: All credit rating agencies in India are regulated by the SEBI (Credit Rating Agencies) Regulations, 1999 of the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992. ICRA is a public limited company, whose shares are listed on the Bombay Stock Exchange and the National Stock Exchange. Brickwork Ratings, a SEBI registered credit rating agency is also recognized by RBI. 
Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

64. With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements are correct?
1. The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB.
2. BBB recommends the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks.
3. BBB helps the Public Sector Banks in developing strategies and capital raising plans.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)
Explanation: The Banks Board Bureau consists of the Chairman, three ex-officio Member Secretaries, the Secretaries of the Department of Public Enterprises, the Department of Financial Services, and the Deputy Governor of the Reserve Bank of India, and five expert members, two of whom are from the private sector.
The Chairman of the BBB is appointed by the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet. BBB helps public sector banks to develop strategies and raise capital.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b). 

65. With reference to Convertible Bonds, consider the following statements:
1. As there is an option to exchange the bond for equity, Convertible Bonds pay a lower rate of interest.
2. The option to convert to equity affords the bondholder a degree of indexation to ‘rising consumer prices.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only 
(c) Both 1 and 2 
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)
Explanation: Companies issue coupon rates on loans (lower interest rates) and convertible bonds to reduce depreciation. They can be more attractive to investors because convertible bonds provide the stock price with the potential to grow in the future through capital appreciation. Therefore, the increase in consumer prices will benefit investors. 
Therefore, the correct answer is (c). 

66. Consider the following:
1. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
2. Missile Technology Control Regime
3, Shanghai Cooperation Organisation

India is a member of which of the above?
(a) 1 and 2 only 
(b) 3 only 
(c) 2 and 3 only 
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)
Explanation: MTCR is an informal and voluntary partnership between 35 countries to prevent the spread of missile and unmanned aerial vehicle technology India was included in the Missile Technology Control Regime in 2016 as its 35th member.
AIIB is a multilateral development bank that aims to improve social and economic outcomes in Asia. India is its second-largest shareholder, contributing US$8.4 billion.
SCO is a permanent intergovernmental international organization. India and Pakistan joined the SCO as full members on 9 June 2017.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d). 

67.  Consider the following statements:
1. Vietnam has been one of the fastest-growing economies in the world in recent years.
2. Vietnam is led by a multi-party political system.
3. Vietnam’s economic growth is linked to its integration with global supply chains and focus on exports.
4. For a long time, Vietnam’s low labor costs and stable exchange rates have attracted global manufacturers.
5. Vietnam has the most productive e-service sector in the Indo-Pacific region.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 2 and 4
(b) 3 and 5
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 2

Answer: (c)
Explanation: The growth rate rank of Vietnam in the years 2020 and 2021 is 15 and 38 respectively. It has a one-party system where the ruling Communist Party of Vietnam (CPV) has dominated for decades. Vietnam’s economic growth is linked to its integration with global supply chains and focus on exports. Vietnam is considered a low-cost manufacturer with competitive labor costs. 
Therefore, the correct answer is (c).
 
68. In India, which one of the following is responsible for maintaining price stability by controlling inflation?
(a) Department of Consumer Affairs 
(b) Expenditure Management Commission 
(c) Financial Stability and Development Council 
(d) Reserve Bank of India

Answer: (d)
Explanation: The responsibility for conducting monetary policy is vested in the RBI. This responsibility is mandated under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. In May 2016, the RBI Act, 1934 was amended to provide a statutory basis for the implementation of the Flexible Inflation Targeting Framework.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d). 

69. With reference to Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs), consider the following statements:
1. They enable the digital representation of physical assets.
2. They are unique cryptographic tokens that exist on a blockchain.
3. They can be traded or exchanged at equivalency and therefore can be used as a medium of commercial transactions.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) I, 2 and 3

Answer: (a)
Explanation: Physical assets can be converted into an NFT, which can then be traded online using cryptocurrencies. If a person converts his digital assets into NFTs, he will get a blockchain-powered proof of ownership.  NFTs are non-fungible tokens, which means that the value of one NFT is not equal to the other and is not interchangeable. 
Therefore, the correct answer is (a). 

70. Consider the following pairs:
Reservoirs – States
1. Ghataprabha — Telangana 
2. Gandhi Sagar — Madhya Pradesh 
3. Indira Sagar — Andhra Pradesh 
4. Maithon — Chhattisgarh

How many pairs given above are not correctly matched?
(a) Only one pair 
(b) Only two pairs 
(c) Only three pairs 
(d) All four pairs

Answer: (c)
Explanation:  Ghatprabha Karnataka, Gandhi Sagar Madhya Pradesh, Indira Sagar Madhya Pradesh, Maithon Jharkhand
Therefore, the correct answer is (c). 

71. In India, which one of the following compiles information on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchment, and lay-offs in factories employing workers?
(a) Central Statistics Office
(b) Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade
(c) Labour Bureau
(d) National Technical Manpower Information System

Answer: (c)
Explanation: The Labor Bureau was established on 1 October 1946 as an attached office under the Ministry of Labor and Employment. Statistics on Industrial Disputes, Detentions, Layoffs, and Layoffs in India is an annual publication of the Labor Bureau, an attached office under the Ministry of Labor and Employment. 
Therefore, the correct answer is (c). 

72. In India, what is the role of the Coal Controller’s Organization (CCO)?
1. CCO is the major source of Coal Statistics in the Government of India.
2. It monitors the progress of the development of Captive Coal/Lignite blocks.
3. It hears any objection to the Government’s notification relating to the acquisition of coal-bearing areas.
4. It ensures that coal mining companies deliver the coal to end-users in the prescribed time.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4

Answer: (c)
Explanation: Coal Control Organization submits monthly coal data to various Ministries of Central and State Government, National and International Organizations. It monitors the progress of the development of captive coal/lignite blocks and their associated end-use projects. 
The Controller of Coal under the Coal-rich Areas (Acquisition and Development) Act, 1957 is the competent authority to hear any objection to the notification of the Central Government relating to the acquisition of coal-based land and to submit its report to the Central Government. 
It does not ensure that the coal mining company delivers the coal to the end-user within the stipulated time. 
Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

73. If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it?
(a) This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people.
(b) This would create a local self-governing body in that area.
(c) This would convert that area into a Union Territory.
(d) The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State.

Answer: (a)
Explanation: Under the Fifth Schedule, The Governor can make rules with respect to prohibition and restriction of transfer of land to and between Scheduled Tribes. Almost every state in the country has Scheduled Areas and enacted laws relating to the prevention/prohibition of transfer of land by tribals to non-tribals and in some cases, restricted to the mutual transfer of land between tribals. 
Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

74. Consider the following statements:
1. The India Sanitation Coalition is a platform to promote sustainable sanitation and is funded by the Government of India and the World Health Organization.
2. The National Institute of Urban Affairs is an apex body of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs in the Government of India and provides innovative solutions to address the challenges of Urban India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only 
(b) 2 only 
(c) Both 1 and 2 
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d)
Explanation: ISC has multiple stakeholders that allow the private sector, government, financial institutions, and others to work together to achieve sustainable sanitation. The NIUA aims to give relevant solutions to the difficulties of a rapidly urbanizing India.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

75. Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986?
(a) Central Water Commission
(b) Central Ground Water Board 
(c) Central Ground Water Authority
(d) National Water Development Agency

Answer: (c)
Explanation: To oversee and control the development and management of groundwater resources in the country, the Central Ground Water Authority was established under Section 3 (3) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. 
Therefore, the correct answer is (c). 

76. With reference to the “United Nations Credentials Committee”, consider the following statements:
1. It is a committee set up by the UN Security Council and works under its supervision.
2. It traditionally meets in March, June, and September every year.
3. It assesses the credentials of all UN members before submitting a report to the General Assembly for approval.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 3 only
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 2

Answer: (a)
Explanation: It consists of nine members who are elected by the General Assembly on the UNGA President’s recommendation. In November, the committee meets, and the report is given to the full body in December. It is required to investigate the credentials of member state representatives and report to the General Assembly. 
Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

77. Which one of the following statements best describes the ‘Polar Code’?
(a) It is the international code of safety for ships operating in polar waters.
(b) It is the agreement of the countries around the North Pole regarding the demarcation of their territories in the polar region.
(c) It is a set of norms to be followed by the countries whose scientists undertake research studies in the North Pole and the South Pole.
(d) It is a trade and security agreement of the member countries of the Arctic Council.

Answer: (a)
Explanation: The Polar Code is IMO’s international code of safety for ships operating in polar waters. It includes all aspects of environmental protection essential to ship design, building, equipment, operation, training, search and rescue, and ships operating in inaccessible seas near the two poles.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

78. With reference to the United Nations General Assembly, consider the following statements:
1. The UN General Assembly can grant observer status to the non-member States.
2. Inter-governmental organizations can seek observer status in the UN General Assembly.
3. Permanent Observers in the UN General Assembly can maintain missions at the UN headquarters.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)
Explanation: Non-member nations, international organizations, and other entities can be granted observer status by the UN General Assembly. Permanent Observers can participate in the sessions and functions of the General Assembly at the UN Headquarters and continue missions.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

79. With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements:
1. The Tea Board is a statutory body.
2. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
3. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru.
4. The Board has overseas offices in Dubai and Moscow.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 
(b) 2 and 4 
(c) 3 and 4 
(d) 1 and 4

Answer: (d)
Explanation: The Tea Board is a statutory body of the government. It is administered by the Ministry of Commerce. Its headquarters are located in Kolkata and it maintains two international offices, one in Dubai and the other in Moscow.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

80. Which one of the following best describes the term “greenwashing”?
(a) Conveying a false impression that a company’s products are eco-friendly and environmentally sound
(b) Non-inclusion of ecological/ environmental costs in the Annual Financial Statements of a country
(c) Ignoring the disastrous ecological consequences while undertaking infrastructure development
(d) Making mandatory provisions for environmental costs in a government project/program

Answer: (a)
Explanation: Greenwashing is creating a false illusion about how a company’s products are better for the environment.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

81.  Consider the following statements:
1. High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth.
2. Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth’s surface and thus cause a warming effect.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d)
Explanation: Low clouds reflect solar radiation and help to keep the Earth’s surface cool. High clouds transmit mostly incoming solar energy, but they also retain and reflect part of Earth’s outgoing infrared heat down, warming the planet’s surface.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

82. Consider the following statements:
1. Bidibidi is a large refugee settlement in north-western Kenya.
2. Some people who fled from the South Sudan civil war live in Bidibidi.
3. Some people who fled from the civil war in Somalia live in the Dadaab refugee complex in Kenya.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Answer: (c)
Explanation: Bidibidi is a refugee camp in northwestern Uganda. Bidibi was the world’s largest refugee colony in early 2017 when over 270,000 South Sudanese refugees fled the nation owing to the civil war. The Dadaab refugee complex in Kenya is home to thousands of refugees.
Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

83. Consider the following countries:
1. Armenia 
2. Azerbaijan 
3. Croatia 
4. Romania 
5. Uzbekistan

Which of the above are members of the Organization of Turkic States?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 
(b) 1 and 3 
(c) 2 and 5 
(d) 3, 4 and 5

Answer: (c)
Explanation: Azerbaijan, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, and Turkey are the four founding members of the Turkish States Organization. Uzbekistan became a full member in 2019. In September 2018, Hungary was granted observer status. Turkmenistan became an observer member of the organization at the 8th summit in November 2021.
Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

84. Consider the following statements:
1. Gujarat has the largest solar park in India.
2. Kerala has a fully solar-powered International Airport.
3. Goa has the largest floating solar photovoltaic project in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only

Answer: (b)
Explanation: The world’s largest solar power park is located at Rajasthan’s Bhadla Solar Park. The Cochin International Airport in Kerala is the world’s first airport to function entirely on solar electricity. MP is home to India’s largest floating solar PV facility, with a capacity of 600 MW.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

85. With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea, consider the following statements:
1. A coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from a baseline determined in accordance with the convention.
2. Ships of all states, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea.
3. The Exclusive Economic Zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baseline from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)
Explanation: Each State has the right to define the extent of its territorial sea within the territorial sea boundaries to a maximum of 12 nautical miles, as measured from the baseline established. Ships from all governments enjoy the right of passage in the territorial waters under the doctrine of innocent passage. Exclusive economic zones are regions that extend beyond and adjacent to the territorial sea but do not exceed 200 nautical miles from the baselines used to calculate the territorial sea’s breadth.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d). 

86. Which one of the following statements best reflects the issue with the Senkaku Islands, sometimes mentioned in the news?
(a) It is generally believed that they are artificial islands made by a country around the South China Sea.
(b) China and Japan engage in maritime disputes over these islands in the East China Sea.
(c) A permanent American military base has been set up there to help Taiwan to increase its defense capabilities.
(d) Though the International Court of Justice declared them as no man’s land, some South-East Asian countries claim them.

Answer: (b)
Explanation: Senkaku is a natural island.  It’s a collection of eight deserted islets. The islands are located in the East China Sea, and both Japan and China claim possession. Although the US has not constructed permanent military outposts, joint military drills between the US and Japanese forces have taken place. It has not been declared a no-man’s-land by the International Court of Justice.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

87. Consider the following pairs:
Country  —  Important reason for being in the news recently
1. Chad — Setting up of permanent military base by China 
2. Guinea — Suspension of Constitution and Government by military 
3. Lebanon — Severe and prolonged economic depression
4. Tunisia — Suspension of Parliament by President

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) Only three pairs
(d) All four pairs

Answer: (c)
Explanation: Military authorities in Guinea seized the president and proclaimed the dissolution of the government and suspension of the constitution. Lebanon is an import-dependent country and its main harbor has been severely damaged, raising the cost of basic goods and jeopardizing the country’s food security. Tunisia’s PM has been suspended, and the country’s parliament has been dissolved.
Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

88. Consider the following pairs:
The region often mentioned in the news – Country 
1. Anatolia – Turkey 
2. Amhara – Ethiopia 
3. Cabo Delgado – Spain 
4. Catalonia – Italy

How Many pairs given above are correctly matched? 
(a) Only one pair 
(b) Only two pairs 
(c) Only three pairs 
(d) All four pairs

Answer: (b)
Explanation: Anatolia – Turkey, Amhara – Ethiopia, Cabo Delgado – Mozambique, Catalonia – Spain
Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

89. With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements:
1. Wild animals are the sole property of the government. 
2. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled to equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside. 
3. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing.

Which of the statements, given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only

Answer: (a)
Explanation: The Bombay High Court held that wild animals should be recognized as “government property for all purposes” and that the government must recompense any harm they do. An animal designated as a protected animal under the WPA, 1972, receives protection regardless of whether it is found within or outside of the protected region. The mere suspicion or worry that a wild animal may jeopardize human life is insufficient to justify its capture or death.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

90. Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of fungi?
(a) Ant
(b) Cockroach
(c) Crab
(d) Spider

Answer: (a)
Explanation: Ant species are referred to as fungal cultivators. Other pests that are known cultivators of the fungus include termites, beetles, and marsh periwinkle.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

91. Consider the following pairs:
Site of Ashoka’s major rock edicts        –      Location in the State of
1. Dhauli                        –                               Odisha
2. Erragudi                    –                           Andhra Pradesh
3. Jaugada                     –                         Madhya Pradesh
4. Kalsi                          –                              Karnataka

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) Only three pairs
(d) All four pairs

Answer: (b)
Explanation: Dhauli is a historically significant center in Orissa. Erragudi is on the Gooty-Patikonda road in Andhra Pradesh’s Kurnool district. Jaugada is located in the Ganjam district of Odisha, near the cities of Berhampur and Purushottampur. Kalsi is located in the buffer zone between Uttarakhand and Himachal Pradesh.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

92. Consider the following pairs:
      King                            Dynasty
1. Nannuka             –          Chandela
2. Jayashakti           –          Paramara
3. Nagabhata II      –     Gurjara-Pratihara
4. Bhoja                  –      Rashtrakuta

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) Only three pairs
(d) All four pairs

Answer: (b)
Explanation: The Chandela dynasty was founded in the 9th century CE by Nannuka and its capital was Khajuraho. Jayashakti was also a part of the Chandela Dynasty. Nagabhata II was a GurjaraPratiharas dynasty ruler and Bhoja I was Nagabhata II’s grandson.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

93. Which one of the following statements about Sangam literature in ancient South India is correct?
(a) Sangam poems are devoid of any reference to material culture.
(b) The social classification of Varna was known to Sangam poets.
(c) Sangam poems have no reference to warrior ethic.
(d) Sangam literature refers to magical forces as irrational.

Answer: (b)
Explanation: Sangam literature is a collection of poetry written by Tamils from various socioeconomic backgrounds spanning a six-century period, roughly from 300 BC to 300 AD. It contains references to material culture, combat tactics, and ethics. The varna system was not practiced, although it was known.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

94.  “Yogavasistha” was translated into Persian by Nizamuddin Panipati during the reign of:
(a) Akbar
(b) Humayun
(c) Shahjahan
(d) Aurangzeb

Answer: (a)
Explanation: The cosmopolitan Indo-Persian court culture that had formed in the Mughal court under the support of the then-emperor Akbar was aided by Sanskrit Laghuyoga Visih as Persian Yogavasistha. The translations were completed in 1597 by a team of three translators: Nizamuddin Panipati, Pandit Jagannath and Pathan Mishra Jajipuri, and Banarasi Mishra.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a). 

95. The world’s second tallest statue in the sitting pose of Ramanuja was inaugurated by the Prime Minister of India in Hyderabad recently. Which one of the following statements correctly represents the teachings of Ramanuja?
(a) The best means of salvation was devotion.
(b) Vedas are eternal, self-existent, and wholly authoritative.
(c) Logical arguments were essential means for the highest bliss.
(d) Salvation was to be obtained through meditation.

Answer: (a)
Explanation: Ramanuja was born in the 11th century in Tamil Nadu. The Alvar saints, who were Vishnu followers, had a big effect on him. He felt that the only road to redemption was to devote oneself completely to Vishnu.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

96. The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple at Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple?
1. Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines.
2. A description of Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni.
3. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present-day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a)
Explanation: Somnath is the first of India’s twelve Jyotirlingas shrines. It was described in Al-Biruni’s travelogue, which prompted Ghaznavi’s attack on the temple in 1024 AD. Dr. Rajendra Prasad, the then-President of India, performed prana-pratishtha on May 11, 1951.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a).  

97. Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body?
(a) They protect the environmental allergens.
(b) They alleviate the body’s pain and inflammation.
(c) They act as immunosuppressants in the body.
(d) They protect the body from the diseases caused by pathogens.

Answer: (d)
Explanation: Two different types of cells in our blood orchestrate primary and secondary immune responses- B-cells and T-cells. To combat pathogens, B-cells produce a range of proteins in human blood. These proteins are known as antibodies. T-cells don’t make antibodies on their own; instead, they help B-cells produce proteins.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

98. Consider the following statements:
1. Other than those made by humans, nanoparticles do not exist in nature.
2. Nanoparticles of some metallic oxides are used in the manufacture of some cosmetics.
3. Nanoparticles of some commercial products which enter the environment are unsafe for humans.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (d)
Explanation: Nanoparticles can be found in nature as well as generated via human activities. Cosmetics, sunscreens, anti-aging creams, moisturizers, etc. all benefit from nanotechnology by generating nanoparticles that allow for appropriate active ingredient exposure and absorption. Certain nanoparticles that originate as a result of human activity such as cigarette smoking and fire cause lung damage.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

99. Consider the following statements:
DNA Barcoding can be a tool to:
1. assess the age of a plant or animal.
2. distinguish among species that look alike.
3. identify the undesirable animal or plant materials in processed foods.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (d)
Explanation: Experts use a radioactive isotope of carbon called carbon-14 as a clock to determine the age of plant and animal remnants from the recent past. DNA barcoding is a method of identifying species by using certain sections of DNA.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

100. Consider the following:
1. Carbon monoxide
2. Nitrogen oxide
3. Ozone
4. Sulfur dioxide

Excess of which of the above in the environment is/are the cause(s) of acid rain?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4

Answer: (b)
Explanation: Acid rain emits nitrogen and sulfur oxides into the environment. The burning of fossil fuels like coal produces sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides.  As polluted air usually contains particulate matter, which catalyzes oxidation, SO2, and NO2 interacting with water after oxidation becomes key contributors to acid rain.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b).


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