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UPSC Prelims 2019 – General Studies Paper I

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  • Last Updated : 15 Jun, 2022
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As a Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) applicant, you must have a plan in place to prepare for the exam. UPSC exams are very challenging and require extensive preparation and dedication. The key to success is to be aware of the obstacles ahead. Reviewing previous year’s papers will provide you with elements of preparation that you may not have considered. Solving the previous year’s question paper provides an insight into the types of questions which will be asked in the examination. Studying these papers with thorough explanations will enable you to understand the basic concepts, which will be essential for answering similar questions. It will also help you revise subjects. As soon as you’ve finished with your preparations, start working on these question papers. Analyze your performance and improve wherever necessary. Many questions are rephrased and repeated every year. If you read the questions thoroughly, you will be able to answer in less time.

There are three levels of the UPSC exam: Preliminary, Main Exam, and Interview. Two objective type exams of 200 marks each make up the preliminary exam: General Studies and the Civil Services Aptitude Test. In Paper I, each question carries two points, whereas, in Paper II, each question carries 2.5 points. There will be a negative marking of ⅓ for a wrong answer. The time duration will be 2 hours for each examination.
 

Good luck and stay positive!

 Q1. With reference to Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB), consider the following statements
1. AIIB has more than 80 member nations.
2. India is the largest shareholder in AIIB.
3. AIIB does not have any members from outside Asia.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c). 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a)

Explanation: AIIB currently has 97 members and is accepting new members. The largest stakeholder is China, followed by India. It includes members from all over the world, including Fiji, New Zealand, and Australia.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

Q2. What was the purpose of the Inter-Creditor Agreement signed by Indian banks and financial institutions recently?
(a) To lessen the Government of India’s perennial burden of fiscal deficit and current account deficit
(b) To support the infrastructure projects of Central and State Governments
(c) To act as an independent regulator in case of applications for loans of Rs. 50 crore or more
(d) To aim at faster resolution of stressed assets of Rs. 50 crore or more which are under consortium lending

Answer: (d)

Explanation: The ICA is targeted at resolving loan accounts worth more than Rs 50 crore that is controlled by a consortium of lenders. It is part of the “Sashakt” initiative to solve the problem of bad debt resolution.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

Q3. The Chairmen of public sector banks are selected by the
(a) Banks Board Bureau
(b) Reserve Bank of India
(c) Union Ministry of Finance
(d) Management of the concerned bank

Answer: (a)

Explanation: The BBB selects and the Finance Ministry appoints the Chairmen of public sector banks. The Cabinet Appointment Committee makes the ultimate choice based on the BBB’s recommendation.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

Q4. Consider the following statements:
1. Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) is the first regulatory body set up by the Government of India.
2. One of the tasks of PNGRB is to, ensure competitive markets for gas.
3. Appeals against the decisions of PNGRB go before the Appellate Tribunals for Electricity.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

Explanation: The TRAI is the GOIs first independent regulatory organization. The PGNRB was established in 2006. It assures that the gas market is competitive. Section 110 of the Electricity Act of 2003 establishes the PGNRB Appellate Tribunal.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

Q5. With reference to communication technologies, what is/are the difference/differences between LTE (Long-Term Evolution) and VoLTE (Voice over Long-Term Evolution)?
1. LTE ‘is commonly marketed as 3G and VoLTE are commonly marketed as advanced 3G.
2. LTE is data-only technology and VoLTE is voice-only technology.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d)

Explanation: VoLTE is an LTE upgrade. It allows users to make voice and data calls over a 4G LTE network.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

Q6. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017?
1. Pregnant women are entitled to three months pre-delivery and three months post-delivery paid leave.
2. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother a minimum of six creche visits daily.
3. Women with two children get reduced entitlements.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

Explanation: 26 weeks of paid maternity leave is provided to female employees. It is available 8 weeks before the delivery date. Any company with 50 or more employees must facilitate a creche, and mothers are allowed to visit four times during working hours. Women who expect after having two children are entitled to a 12-week paid maternity leave.
Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

Q7.Which one of the following is not a sub-index of the World Bank’s ‘Ease of Doing Business Index’?
(a) Maintenance of law and order
(b) Paying taxes
(c) Registering property
(d) Dealing with construction permits

Answer: (a)

Explanation: Starting a Business, Dealing with Construction Permits, Getting Electricity, Registering Property, Getting Credit, Protecting Minority Investors, Paying Taxes, Trading Across Borders, Enforcing Contracts, and Resolving Insolvency is among the ten sub-indicators covered. 
Therefore, the correct answer is (a). 

Q8. In India, ‘extended producer responsibility’ was introduced as an important feature in which of the following?
(a) The Bio-medical Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 1998
(b) The Recycled plastic (Manufacturing and Usage) Rules, 1999
(c) The e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011
(d) The Food Safety and Standard Regulations, 2011

Answer: (c)

Explanation: Producers’ liability for recycling and decreasing e-waste in the country is recognized by the e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011. Electronic equipment manufacturers must ensure that E-waste is properly channeled to registered recyclers.
Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

Q9. The economic cost of food grains to the Food Corporation of India is the Minimum Support Price and bonus (if any) paid to the farmers plus
(a) transportation cost only
(b) interest cost only
(c) procurement incidentals and distribution cost
(d) procurement incidentals and charges for godowns

Answer: (c)

Explanation: It is the sum of the MSP and bonus paid to farmers, as well as the procurement incidentals and distribution costs spent during the acquisition of foodgrains.
Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

Q10. In the context of any country, which one of the following would be considered as part of its social capital?
(a) The proportion of literates in the population
(b) The stock of its buildings, other infrastructure, and machines
(c) The size of the population in the working-age group
(d) The level of mutual trust and harmony in the society

Answer: (d)

Explanation: The network of relationships among individuals who live and work in a society that allows that society to function efficiently is known as social capital.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d). 

Q11. The Service Area Approach was implemented under the purview of
(a) Integrated Rural Programme
(b) Lead Bank Scheme
(c) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme
(d) National Skill Development Mission

Answer: (b)

Explanation: SAA was developed in April 1989 to bridge the geographical and structural credit gaps, with districts serving as area units and each district being assigned to a certain bank that would act as a Lead Bank. 
Therefore, the correct answer is (b). 

Q12. With reference to the management of minor minerals in India, consider the following statements:
1. Sand is a ‘minor mineral’ according to the prevailing law in the country.
2. State Governments have the power to grant mining leases of minor minerals, but the powers regarding the formation of rules related to the grant of minor minerals lie with the Central Government.
3. State Governments have the power to frame rules to prevent illegal mining of minor minerals.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(e) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a)

Explanation: According to section 3(e) of the MMDR Act 1957, sand is a minor mineral. The power to set policy for minor minerals is entrusted to state governments, whereas the Central Government is in charge of major mineral policy and law.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

Q13. Consider the following statements:
1. Most of India’s external debt is owed by governmental entities.
2. All of India’s external debt is denominated in US dollars.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d)

Explanation: Commercial borrowings accounted for 37.4 percent of external debt, which is the most significant external debt component.  India’s external debt is held in several currencies, the most prominent being the US dollar.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

Q14. Which of the following is not included in the assets of a commercial bank in India?
(a) Advances
(b) Deposits
(e) Investments
(d). Money at call and short notice

Answer: (b)

Explanation: Deposits are a liability and not assets for a commercial bank since the bank has to repay its lenders the sum owed to them.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b). 

Q15. In the context of India, which of the following factors is/are contributor/ contributors to reducing the risk of a currency crisis?
1. The foreign currency earnings of India’s IT sector
2. Increasing the government expenditure
3. Remittances from Indians abroad

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

Explanation: Currency crises occur when the value of a country’s currency falls, causing instability in currency exchange rates. India’s IT sector’s foreign profits and remittances from Indians living abroad will bring foreign cash into the country, reducing the possibility of a currency crisis.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

Q16. Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?
(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)
(b) Rajamannar Committee (1969)
(c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)
(d) National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000)

Answer: (c)

Explanation: The ‘Sarkaria Commission’ advised that the governor be appointed democratically for the office to function impartially.

Q17. Which of the following is issued by registered foreign portfolio investors to overseas investors who want to be part of the Indian stock market without registering themselves directly?
(a) Certificate of Deposit
(b) Commercial Paper
(c) Promissory Note
(d) Participatory Note

Answer: (d)

Explanation: Investors must use participatory notes to invest in Indian assets without having to register.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

Q18. Consider the following statements
1. As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority exists at both National and State levels.
2. People’s participation is mandatory in the compensatory afforestation programs carried out under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a)

Explanation: The CAMPA has been established at both the central and state levels to ensure that money given for forest land were used for non-forest purposes in a timely and transparent manner.  The act referred to in statement 2 does not contain such a provision.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

Q19. In India, which of the following review the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc.?
1. Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament
2. Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees
3. Finance Commission
4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission
5. NITI Aayog

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 3, 4 and 5
(d) 2 and 5

Answer: (a)

Explanation: Parliamentary committees were created to deal with a variety of issues that the legislature could not directly address owing to their magnitude. The NITI Aayog and the  Finance Commission are advisory bodies and do not conduct reviews of regulators’ operations. The FSLRC was established to examine financial laws, not regulators.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

20. With reference to India’s Five-Year Plans, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. From the Second Five-Year Plan, there was a determined thrust towards substitution of basic and capital good industries.
2. The Fourth Five-Year Plan adopted the objective of correcting the earlier trend of increased concentration of wealth and economic power.
3. In the Fifth Five-Year Plan, for the first time, the financial sector was included as an integral part of the Plan.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a)

Explanation: The Nehru-Mahalanobis plan, which favored heavy industries, affected the 2nd FYP prioritizing capital goods and basic industries.  The 4th FYP was created to reverse the previous trend mentioned in statement 2. Before the 5th FYP (1974 -1979), the financial sector was incorporated as an important element of the plan for the first time in 1969. 
Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

Q21. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:
1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid.
2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d)

Explanation:  A constitutional amendment or a central law can be challenged by both the SC and the HCs.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d). 

Q22. Consider the following statements
1. Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) exchange rates are calculated by comparing the prices of the same basket of goods and services in different countries.
2. In terms of PPP dollars, India is the sixth-largest economy in the world.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a)

Explanation: PPP is an economic standard that uses a fixed basket of goods and services to analogize the currencies of various nations. In terms of PPP, China is the world’s largest economy, followed by the United States and India.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

Q23. With reference to the cultivation of Kharif crops in India in the last five years, consider the following statements:
1. Area under rice cultivation is the highest.
2. Area under the cultivation of Jowar is more than that of oilseeds.
3. Area of cotton cultivation is more than that of sugarcane.
4. Area under sugarcane cultivation has steadily decreased.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3, and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (a)

Explanation: According to the Ministry of Agriculture’s annual report (2016-17), India has the largest area under rice cultivation. Jowar covers 17 to 18 million hectares, whereas oilseed farming covers 26.1 million hectares. Every year, the area under sugarcane varies. Cotton farming covers 11.72 million hectares, whereas sugarcane cultivation covers 4.953 million hectares.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

Q24. Among the agricultural commodities imported by India, which one of the following accounts for the highest imports in terms of value in the last five years?
(a) Spices
(b) Fresh fruits
(c) Pulses
(d) Vegetable oils

Answer: (d)

Explanation: India imports a large amount of vegetable oil from a variety of nations. Nearly 70% of India’s vegetable oil use comes from imports.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

Q25. In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?
(a) Protection against the tyranny of political rulers
(b) Absence of restraint
(c) Opportunity to do whatever one likes
(d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully.

Answer: (d)

Explanation: Liberty means opportunities for the development of individual personalities as it ensures that there are no restraints.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

Q26. Which one of the following is not the most likely measure the Government/RBI takes to stop the slide of the Indian rupee?
(a) Curbing imports of non-essential goods and promoting exports
(b) Encouraging Indian borrowers to issue rupee-denominated Masala Bonds
(c) Easing conditions relating to external commercial borrowing
(d) Following an expansionary monetary policy

Answer: (d)

Explanation: Expansionary monetary policy reduces interest rates while increasing aggregate demand as a result GDP growth is boosted. It decreases the exchange rate by lowering the currency’s value.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

Q27. Consider the following statements: 
The Reserve Bank of India’s recent directives relating to ‘Storage of Payment System Data’, popularly known as data diktat, command the payment system providers that
1. they shall ensure that entire data relating to payment systems operated by them are stored in a system only in India
2. they shall ensure that the systems are owned and operated by public sector enterprises
3. they shall submit the consolidated system audit report to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India by the end of the calendar year

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a)

Explanation: According to RBI data localization requirements, They must ensure that any data relevant to payment systems they run is stored in a system exclusively in India. It should include all transaction data, information carried and processed as part of the message and payment instructions.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

Q28. Which of the following adopted a law on data protection and privacy for its citizens known as ‘General Data Protection Regulation’ in April 2016 and started implementation of it from 25th May 2018?
(a) Australia
(b) Canada
(c) The European Union
(d) The United States of America

Answer: (c)

Explanation: The European Parliament and Council approved the regulation in April 2016 as the key law governing how firms secure EU citizens’ personal data.
Therefore, the correct answer is (c). 

Q29. Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries?
(a) Japan
(b) Russia
(c) The United Kingdom
(d) The United States of America

Answer: (b)

Explanation: On October 5, 2018, Russia and India struck a deal in New Delhi. They intend to build a project in India for six Russian-designed nuclear power units, strengthen collaboration with other nations, and introduce new nuclear technology through joint nuclear power plant construction. 
Therefore, the correct answer is (b). 

Q30. The money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following?
(a) Increase in the cash reserve ratio
(b) Increase in the banking habit of the population
(c) Increase in the statutory liquidity ratio
(d) Increase in the population of the country

Answer: (b)

Explanation: As more individuals begin banking and putting money in banks, banks will be able to lend even more. As a result, more money enters the system. It can result in the same money supply being lent and re-loaned numerous times, raising the money multiplier.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

Q31. Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India:
1. PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory.
2. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status.
3. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far.
4. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4

Answer: (c)

Explanation: PVTGs were established to improve the living circumstances of communities with very low development indices. They are in 18 states and one union territory, the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.  75 PVTGs have been formally notified across the country. The Konda Reddis are in Andhra Pradesh, whereas the Irular are in Tamil Nadu.
Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

Q32. With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations, or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?
(a) The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its duties cannot be challenged in any court of law.
(b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by-laws made by the Parliament.
(c) In the event of a grave financial crisis in the country, the President of India can declare Financial Emergency without the counsel from the Cabinet.
(d) State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of the Union Legislature.

Answer: (b)

Explanation: According to Article 142,  The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

Q33. With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the following statements:
1. The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the commencement of the first session of the year.
2. When a State Legislature does not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

Explanation: The Governor is required by Article 176(1) of the Constitution to address both Houses convened together at the start of each year’s first session. In a state with a legislative council, the governor may adopt regulations regarding communications between the two houses after consulting with the speaker of the legislative assembly and the chairman of the legislative councils. 
Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

Q34. Consider the following statements:
1. The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a ‘Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air’.
2. The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument.
3. A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly.
4. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its member States to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3, and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (c)

Explanation: The UNTOC has a protocol against Migrant Smuggling by Land, Sea, and Air. The only legally enforceable international anti-corruption multilateral pact is UNCAC. It includes a provision that allows assets to be returned to their lawful owners after they have been illegally acquired. UNODC is required by its member states to help in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC.
Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

Q35. Consider the following statements:
1. As per a recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to fell the bamboo grown in forest areas.
2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo are a minor forest produce.
3. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

Explanation: The Indian Forest (Amendment) Bill 2018 allows bamboo grown outside of forests to be felled and transported. Bamboo planted on forest grounds, on the other hand, is categorized as a tree and is subject to legal limitations. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers Act, 2006 recognizes bamboo as an MFP and gives the right to own, gather, utilize, and dispose of it to Scheduled Tribes and traditional forest dwellers.  
Therefore, the correct answer is (b). 

Q36. Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one’s right to marry the person of one’s choice?
(a) Article 19
(b) Article 21
(c) Article 25
(d) Article 29

Answer: (b)

Explanation: Article 21 of the Constitution, guarantees the right to life and liberty, including the freedom to marry the person of one’s choice.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

37. Consider the following statements:
1. According to the Indian Patents Act, a biological process to create a seed can be patented in India.
2. In India, there is no Intellectual Property Appellate Board.
3. Plant varieties are not eligible to be patented in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

Explanation: Plants and animals, other than microorganisms, are exempt from patentability under Article 3(j) of the Indian Patent Act, which includes seeds, varieties, species, and biological methods for the production or propagation of plants and animals.  On September 15, 2003, the Intellectual Property Appellate Board was established.
Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

Q38. Consider the following statements:
The Environment Protection Act, 1986 empowers the Government of India to
1. state the requirement of public participation in the process of environmental protection, and the procedure and manner in which it is sought
2. lay down the standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)

Explanation: The EPA Act of 1986 has no provision for public engagement. The Central Government is authorized to regulate pollution control regulations under Section 6 of the Act.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b). 

Q39. As per the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 in India, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Waste generator has to segregate waste into five categories.
(b) The Rules are applicable to notified urban local bodies, notified towns and all industrial townships only.
(c) The Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of sites for landfills and waste processing facilities.
(d) It is mandatory on the part of waste generator that the waste generated in one district cannot be moved to another district.

Answer: (c)

Explanation: Waste must be separated into three categories by the waste generator. Urban agglomerations, census towns, designated industrial townships, Railways, airports, special economic zones, places of pilgrimage, religious and historical significance, and State and Central Government organizations are now subject to the new laws.  The Act’s Schedule 1 includes extensive rules for landfill site selection. It is not necessary for garbage created in one district to be transported to another. 
Therefore, the correct answer is (c). 

Q40. Consider the following statements:
As per the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central (Amendment) Rules, 2018
1. if rules for fixed-term employment are implemented, it becomes easier for the firms/companies to layoff workers.
2. no notice of termination of employment shall be necessary in the case of a temporary workman.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

Explanation: Through a change to the Industrial Employment Central Rules, 1946, the government has asserted fixed-term employment for all sectors. It will make it easier for businesses to hire and fire employees while also minimizing the role of intermediaries. In the case of a temporary worker, no notice of termination of employment is required.
Therefore, the correct answer is (c). 

41. In the context of digital technologies for entertainment, consider the following statements:
1. In Augmented Reality (AR), a simulated environment is created and the physical world is completely shut out.
2. In Virtual Reality (VR), images generated from a computer are projected onto real-life objects or surroundings.
3. AR allows individuals to be present in the world and improves the experience using the camera of a smartphone or PC.
4. VR closes the world, and transposes an individual, providing a complete immersion experience.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 4 only

Answer: (b)

Explanation: AR is an interactive experience of a real-world environment in which computer-generated perceptual information enhances real-world items. VR is the use of computer technology to construct a virtual world. The user is engaged in 3D environments and may interact with them.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

Q42. The word ‘Denisovan’ is sometimes mentioned in media in reference to
(a) fossils of a kind of dinosaurs
(b) an early human species
(c) a cave system found in North-East India.
(d) a geological period in the history of the Indian subcontinent

Answer: (b)

Explanation: The Denisovans, also known as Denisova hominins, were an extinct species or subspecies of archaic humans.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

Q43. With reference to the recent developments in science, which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Functional chromosomes can be created by joining segments of DNA taken from cells of different species.
(b) Pieces of artificial functional DNA can be created in Laboratories.
(c) A piece of DNA taken out from an animal cell can be made to replicate outside a living cell in a laboratory.
(d) Cells taken out from plants and animals can be made to undergo cell division in laboratory Petri dishes.

Answer: (a)

Explanation: Artificial chromosomes may be made by combining DNA segments from various species’ cells, but functional chromosomes cannot.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a). 

Q44. Consider the following statements:
A digital signature is
1. an electronic record that identifies the certifying authority issuing it
2. used to serve as a proof of identity of an individual to access information or server on the Internet.
3. an electronic method of signing an electronic document and ensuring that the original content is unchanged

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

Explanation: A digital signature is an electronic means of verifying the authenticity of an electronic document. A digital certificate is a computer-based record that determines the issuing Certifying Authority and evidence of identification for accessing information or servers on the Internet. 
Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

Q45. In the context of wearable technology, which of the following tasks is/are accomplished by wearable devices?
1. Location identification of a person
2. Sleep monitoring of a person
3. Assisting the hearing impaired person

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

Explanation: Wearable technology is used in, fitness and sleep trackers such as smartwatches that can measure heart rate and sleep patterns. Wearable tech can connect to the internet through GPS and identify places. It also helps people who are hard of hearing.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

Q46. ‘RNA interference (RNAi)’ technology has gained popularity in the last few years. Why?
1. It is used in developing gene-silencing therapies.
2. It can be used in developing therapies for the treatment of cancer.
3. It can be used to develop hormone replacement therapies.
4. It can be used to produce crop plants that are resistant to viral pathogens.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1 and 4 only

Answer: (a)

Explanation: The biological process of RNAi is the inhibition of gene expression or translation by RNA molecules.  RNAi has enormous potential for gene repression (gene silencing). Novel crops such as nicotine-free tobacco, decaffeinated coffee, nutrient-fortified greenery, and hypoallergenic crops have all been made possible through RNAi.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

Q47. Recently, scientists observed the merger of giant ‘black holes’ billions of light-years away from the Earth. What is the significance of this observation?
(a) ‘Higgs boson particles’ were detected.
(b) ‘Gravitational waves’ were detected.
(e) Possibility of intergalactic space travel through ‘wormhole’ was confirmed.
(d) It enabled the scientists to understand ‘singularity’.

Answer: (b)

Explanation: Two black holes collided recently, forming a bigger one. Its mass exceeds that of the sun by more than 80 times. As the two black holes spiraled inwards, the amount of energy poured was unprecedented, with five suns’ worth of mass emitted as gravitational waves 
Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

Q48. Which of the following are the reasons for the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India?
1. Genetic predisposition of some people
2. Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases
3. Using antibiotics in livestock farming
4. Multiple chronic diseases in some people

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3 only
(e) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (b)

Explanation: Multidrug-resistant organisms are those that are resistant to more than one drug. Reasons include inappropriate antibiotic dosing and the use of large amounts of antibiotics in animal production. These germs can be passed from animals to humans through direct contact or along the food chain.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b). 

Q49. What is the Cas9 protein that is often mentioned in news?
(a) A molecular scissors used in targeted gene editing
(b) A biosensor used in the accurate detection of pathogens in patients
(c) A gene that makes plants pest-resistant
(d) A herbicidal substance synthesized in genetically modified crops

Answer: (a)

Explanation: CRISPR is a gene-editing technique that is used to alter gene expression. It looks for the proper spot in the genome and then employs the Cas9 protein to cut specific DNA with molecular scissors.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

Q50. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Hepatitis B virus is transmitted much like HIV.
(b) Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine.
(c) Globally, the number of people infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses are several times more than those infected with HIV.
(d) Some of those infected with Hepatitis Band C viruses do not show the symptoms for many years.

Answer: (b)

Explanation: A hepatitis B vaccination protects against infection with the hepatitis B virus, a dangerous liver disease. It is advised for all newborns and children up to the age of 18.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

Q51. With reference to Mughal India, what is/are the difference/differences between Jagirdar and Zamindar?
1. Jagirdars were holders of land assignments in lieu of judicial and police duties, whereas Zamindars were holders of revenue rights without obligation to perform any duty other than revenue collection.
2. Land assignments to Jagirdars were hereditary and revenue rights of Zamindars were not hereditary.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(e) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d)

Explanation: In exchange for assigned services to the empire, Jagirdars were given land allocations. They collected taxes, with the profits going to the Mughal treasury. They were given Jagir, a non-inheritable land area equal to their rank. The landowner was known as the Zamindar. They possessed a hereditary claim to the land. They had financial rights, as well as military responsibilities and the duty of providing men for the royal army.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d). 

Q52. With reference to land reforms in independent India, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) The ceiling “laws were aimed at family holdings and not individual holdings.
(b) The major aim of land reforms was providing agricultural land to all the landless.
(c) It resulted in cultivation of cash crops as a predominant form of cultivation.
(d) Land reforms permitted no exemptions to the ceiling limits.

Answer: (b)

Explanation: Land reforms were enacted to provide land to all landless people, as landlessness was seen as a major source of poverty and exploitation.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

Q53. The Global Competitiveness Report is published by the
(a) International Monetary Fund
(b) United Nations Conference on Trade and Development
(c) World Economic Forum
(d) World Bank

Answer: (c)

Explanation: Every year, the GCR is issued by the World Economic Forum. It has ranked countries using Xavier Sala-i-Martin and Elsa V. Artadi’s Global Competitiveness Index since 2004.
Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

Q54. Consider the following statements about ‘the Charter Act of 1813’:
1. It ended the trade monopoly of the East India Company in India except for trade in tea and trade with China.
2. It asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Indian territories held by the Company.
3. The revenues of India were now controlled by the British Parliament.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a)

Explanation: The act effectively abolished the Company’s commercial monopoly, with the exception of the tea and opium trades, as well as trade with China. The Crown’s sovereignty over British India was explicitly stated in the Act.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a)

Q55. With reference to Swadeshi Movement, consider the following statements:
1. It contributed to the revival of indigenous artisan crafts and industries.
2. The National Council of Education was established as a part of Swadeshi Movement.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

Explanation: The Swadeshi spirit was expressed via the construction of swadeshi textile mills, soap and match factories, tanneries, and banks resulting in the resuscitation of indigenous artisan crafts and enterprises.  The NCE was established in Bengal in 1906 by Indian nationalists to promote science and technology as part of a swadeshi industrialization campaign.
Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

Q56. Consider the following pairs:

Movement/Organization Leader
1. All India Anti-Untouchability LeagueMahatma Gandhi
2. All India Kisan SabhaSwami Sahajanand Saraswati
3. Self-Respect MovementE. V. Ramaswami Naicker

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

Explanation: In September 1932, Gandhi founded the All India Anti-Untouchability League. Swami Sahjananda Saraswati was elected president of the All India Kisan Sabha at Lucknow in April 1936. Under the leadership of E Ramaswamy Naicker, the Self-Respect Movement arose in South India.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d).  

Q57. Which one of the following is not a Harappan site?
(a) Chanhudaro
(b) Kot Diji
(c) Sohgaura
(d) Desalpur

Answer: (c)

Explanation: Harappan sites include Chanhudaro, Desalpur, and Kot Diji. Sohgaura, on the other side, is known for a copper plate inscription written in Prakrit in the Brahmi script from the Ashokan era.
Therefore, the correct answer is (c). 

Q58. In which of the following relief sculpture inscriptions is ‘Ranyo Ashoka’ (King Ashoka) mentioned along with the stone portrait of Ashoka?
(a) Kanganahalli
(b) Sanchi I
(c) Shahbazgarhi
(d) Sohgaura

Answer: (a)

Explanation: The most notable discovery at Kanganahalli during the excavations was a stone sculptured slab carrying the name Raya Ashoka. It was the earliest written portrait of Ashoka discovered in the ruins of a Buddhist stupa.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

Q59. Consider the following:
1. Deification of the Buddha
2. Treading the path of Bodhisattvas
3. Image worship and rituals

Which of the above is/are the feature/ features of Mahayana Buddhism?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

Explanation: Mahayana Buddhism began worshipping Buddha’s images, seeing him as a deity. It also features a cosmology of gods and goddesses, as well as several Bodhisattvas pursuing total enlightenment for the sake of all sentient beings.  Mahayana teachings are devoted to following Bodhisattvas’ paths.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

Q60. With reference to forced labor (Vishti) in India during the Gupta period, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) It was considered a source of income for the State, a sort of tax paid by the people.
(b) It was totally absent in the Madhya Pradesh and Kathiawar regions of the Gupta Empire.
(c) The forced laborer was entitled to weekly wages.
(d) The eldest son of the laborer was sent as a forced laborer.

Answer: (a)

Explanation: Vishti was a fee imposed on citizens by the state, as a kind of forced labor. Many inscriptions about Vishti were found in the MP and Kathiawar regions.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

Q61. Which one of the following groups of plants was domesticated in the ‘New World’ and introduced into the ‘Old World’?
(a) Tobacco, cocoa, and rubber
(b) Tobacco, cotton, and rubber.
(c) Cotton, coffee and sugarcane
(d) Rubber, coffee, and wheat

Answer: (a)

Explanation: In the late medieval or the early modern era, Europeans brought tobacco, cocoa, and rubber to India. They all originated in South America. This practice was known as the Columbian trade which is named after Christopher Columbus.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a). 

Q62. Consider the following statements:
1. Asiatic lion is naturally found in India only.
2. Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only.
3. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a)

Explanation: The Asiatic lion’s range is limited to Gujarat’s Gir National Park. The Bactrian camel is found in Central Asia’s steppes. Northern India and southern Nepal are home to the bigger one-horned rhino.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

Q63. Consider the following pairs

Famous place River
Pandharpur Chandrabhaga
TiruchirappalliCauvery
 Hampi Malaprabha

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a)

Explanation: The Vijayanagara empire’s capital was Hampi. It is located on the banks of the Tungabhadra River in central Karnataka’s eastern region.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a). 

Q64. In a given year in India, official poverty lines are higher in some states than in others because
(a) poverty rates vary from State to State
(b) price levels vary from State to State
(c) Gross State Product varies from State to State
(d) quality of public distribution varies from State to State

Answer: (b)

Explanation: The poverty line is determined by the population’s income profile in relation to the cost of a typical basket of goods. Hence, it is a function of the cost of a consumer basket, which is different in every state.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b). 

Q65. In the context of which of the following do some scientists suggest the use of the cirrus cloud thinning technique and the injection of sulfate aerosol into the stratosphere?
(a) Creating the artificial rains in some regions
(b) Reducing the frequency and intensity of tropical cyclones
(c) Reducing the adverse effects of solar wind on the Earth
(d) Reducing the global warming

Answer: (d)

Explanation: Thinning the clouds may allow more heat to escape, allowing the earth to cool. To combat anthropogenic greenhouse gas warming, stratospheric sulfate aerosol injection raises the reflectivity of the lower stratosphere, allowing a little fraction of oncoming sunlight to escape into space and cool the earth. 
Therefore, the correct answer is (d). 

Q66. In the context of which one of the following are the terms ‘pyrolysis and plasma gasification’ mentioned?
(a) Extraction of rare earth elements
(b) Natural gas extraction technologies
(c) Hydrogen fuel-based automobiles
(d) Waste-to-energy technologies

Answer: (d)

Explanation: Thermal procedures such as pyrolysis and gasification utilize high temperatures to break down waste. In comparison to typical mass-burn incineration, they require less oxygen.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d). 

Q67. Which of the following are in Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve?
(a) Neyyar, Peppara, and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve
(b) Mudumalai, Sathyamangalam, and Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Silent Valley National Park
(c) Kaundinya, Gundla Brahme-swaram and Papikonda Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Mukurthi National Park
(d) Kawal and Sri Venkateswara Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve

Answer: (a)

Explanation: This Biosphere Reserve was established in 2001 in the western ghats of South India. It has three animal sanctuaries, Shendurney, Peppara, and Neyyar, as well as the Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a). 

Q68. Consider the following statements:
1. Some species of turtles are herbivores.
2. Some species of fish are herbivores.
3. Some species of marine mammals are herbivores.
4. Some species of snakes are viviparous.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3, and 4 only
(e) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (d)

Explanation: Although they are omnivores as hatchlings, adult sea turtles are classified as herbivores. Two well-known examples of herbivore fish are surgeonfish and parrotfish. Herbivorous marine animals include the black-footed paua, top shell snails, limpets, turban shells, abalones, and conch, as well as sea hares and sea cucumbers. Viviparous snakes give birth to live young as opposed to oviparous snakes that lay eggs.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

Q69. Consider the following pairs:

Wildlife Naturally found in
1. Blue-finned Mahseer Cauvery River
2. Irrawaddy Dolphin Chambal River
3. Rusty-spotted Cat Eastern Ghats

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

Explanation: Irrawaddy dolphins may be found in rivers in South and Southeast Asia like the Ayeyarwady river in Myanmar which is also the source of the species name, Mahakam in Indonesian Borneo, and the Mekong. 
Therefore, the correct answer is (c). 

Q70. Why is there a great concern about the ‘microbeads’ that are released into the environment?
(a) They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems.
(b) They are considered to cause skin cancer in children.
(c) They are small enough to be absorbed by crop plants in irrigated fields.
(d) They are often found to be used as food adulterants.

Answer: (a)

Explanation: Microbeads are often constructed of polyethylene, polypropylene, or polystyrene. They are found in personal care items. They can pollute water and constitute a threat to aquatic creatures in both freshwater and ocean water.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

Q71. Building ‘Kalyana Mandapas’ was a notable feature in the temple construction in the kingdom of
(a) Chalukya
(b) Chandela
(c) Rashtrakuta
(d) Vijayanagara

Answer: (d)

Explanation: In the Vijayanagara kingdom, Kalyaana Mandapas were halls used for weddings and other events. 
Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

Q72. Consider the following statements:
1. In the revenue administration of Delhi Sultanate, the in-charge of revenue collection was known as ‘Amil’.
2. The Iqta system of Sultans of Delhi was an ancient indigenous institution.
3. The office of ‘Mir Bakshi’ came into existence during the reign of Khalji Sultans of Delhi.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a)

Explanation: During the Sultanate period in North India, Amils were officers assigned to collect tax. During Akbar’s rule, Mir Bakshi was in charge of the military,  information, and intelligence services. The Delhi sultans brought the Iqta system of land control to India. Its origins were in Central Asia and Western Asia.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a). 

Q73. Consider the following statements:
1. Saint Nimbarka was a contemporary of Akbar.
2. Saint Kabir was greatly influenced by Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d)

Explanation: The Nimbarka period is unknown, although it falls between the 12th and 13th centuries. Kabir was from a different era than Sirhindi. Sirhindi was a Naqshbandi silsilah scholar, whereas Kabir was a Nirgun bhakti believer.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

Q74. With reference to the British colonial rule in India, consider the following statements:
1. Mahatma Gandhi was instrumental in the abolition of the system of ‘indentured labor’.
2. In Lord Chelmsford’s ‘War Conference’, Mahatma Gandhi did not support the resolution on recruiting Indians for World War.
3. Consequent upon the breaking of the Salt Law by the Indian people, the Indian National Congress was declared illegal by the colonial rulers.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

Explanation: Gandhi was influential in having the British Empire’s indentured labor system abolished in the early 1900s. After Gandhi departed South Africa, the indentured labor system quickly fell. Gandhi did vote in favor of a proposal to enlist Indians into World War II. The colonial government proclaimed the INC illegal in January 1932.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b). 

Q75. With reference to Indian National Movement, consider the following pairs:

Person Position held
1. Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru President, All India Liberal Federation
2. K. C. Neogy Member, The Constituent Assembly
3. P. C. Joshi General Secretary, Communist Party of India

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

Explanation: Surendra Nath Banerjee created the Indian National Liberal Federation, which had Tej Bahadur Sapru, V. S. Srinivasa Sastri, and M. R. Jayakar among its leaders. KC Neogy was a member of India’s first Cabinet and the head of the country’s first Finance Commission. From 1935 through 1947, PC Joshi served as the Communist Party of India’s first general secretary.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

Q76. With reference to Mian Tansen, which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Tansen was the title given to him by Emperor Akbar.
(b) Tansen composed Dhrupads on Hindu gods and goddesses.
(c) Tansen composed songs on his patrons.
(d) Tansen invented many Ragas.

Answer: (a)

Explanation: Raja Vikramjit Singh from Gwalior bestowed the title of ‘Tansen’ on him. The title of ‘Mian’ was bestowed by Akbar.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

Q77Who among the following Mughal Emperors shifted emphasis from illustrated manuscripts to album and individual portrait?
(a) Humayun
(b) Akbar
(c) Jahangir
(d) Shah Jahan

Answer: (c)

Explanation: Jahangir was especially fond of paintings representing events from his own life, individual portraits, and studies of birds, flowers, and animals.
Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

Q78. Which one of the following National Parks lies completely in the temperate alpine zone?
(a) Manas National Park
(b) Namdapha National Park
(c) Neora Valley National Park
(d) Valley of Flowers National Park

Answer: (d)

Explanation: The Valley of Flowers is recognized for its alpine meadows. It is entirely inside the temperate alpine zone. The valley is divided into three sub-alpine zones: between 3,200 and 3,500 meters, lower alpine between 3,500 and 3,700 meters, and higher alpine above 3,700 meters.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

Q79. Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the
(a) Department of Science and Technology
(b) Ministry of Employment
(c) NITI Aayog
(d) Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship

Answer: (c)

Explanation: The NITI Aayog launched the Atal Innovation Mission. It covers the Government of India’s initiative to encourage a culture of innovation and entrepreneurship through Self-Employment, and Talent Utilization.
Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

Q80. On 21st June, the Sun
(a) does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle
(b) does not set below the horizon at Antarctic Circle
(c) shines vertically overhead at noon on the Equator
(d) shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn

Answer: (a)

Explanation: The tropic of cancer is inclined towards the sun on June 21st, which means that the sun is always above the horizon and never sets below the horizon at the Arctic Circle.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

Q81. Consider the following statements:
1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into the environment.
2. Cattle release ammonia into the environment.
3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into the environment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

Explanation: Agricultural soils accounted for more than 70% of N2O emissions. Cattle produce 80% of ammonia. In 2016, the poultry sector discharged 0.415 tonnes of reactive nitrogen compounds into the environment. By 2030, this is expected to rise to 1.089 tonnes.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

Q82 What is common to the places known as Aliyar, Isapur and Kangsabati?
(a) Recently discovered uranium deposits
(b) Tropical rainforests
(c) Underground cave systems
(d) Water reservoirs

Answer: (d)

Explanation: All three are reservoirs for water. Aliyar Dam is between Pollachi and Valparai. In Maharashtra, the Isapur Dam is located on the Penganga River. The Kangasabati Dam is in West Bengal.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

Q83. In the context of proposals to the use of hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) as fuel for buses in public transport, consider the following statements:
1. The main advantage of the use of H-CNG is the elimination of carbon monoxide emissions.
2. H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions.
3. Hydrogen up to one-fifth by volume can be blended with CNG as fuel for buses.
4. H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (b)

Explanation: It cuts carbon monoxide emissions by up to 70% but does not eradicate it. HCNG decreases carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions. It’s a mix of hydrogen and compressed natural gas, with an optimal hydrogen content of 18%.  H2 is currently more expensive than natural gas. As a result, HCNG is more expensive than CNG.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

Q84. Why are dewdrops not formed on a cloudy night?
(a) Clouds absorb the radiation released from the Earth’s surface.
(b) Clouds reflect back the Earth’s radiation.
(c) The Earth’s surface would have a low temperature on cloudy nights.
(d) Clouds deflect the blowing wind to ground level.

Answer: (b)

Explanation: Condensation of water vapors results in dew droplets. On a cloudy night, the clouds reflect the heat back to the earth, preventing the ground from becoming cool enough to generate dew.
Therefore, the answer is (b).

85. Consider the following statements:
1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.
2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of the judiciary.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)

Explanation: The Indian Constitution’s 39th Amendment passed on August 10, 1975, exempted the election of the President, Vice President, Prime Minister, and Speaker of the Lok Sabha from the review of Indian courts.  The National Judicial Appointments Commission would have been included in the 99th CA. However, in 2015, the Supreme Court’s Constitution Bench upheld the collegium system and declared the NJAC unconstitutional by a 4:1 majority.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b). 

86. Consider the following statements:
1. The- motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what Constitutes ‘incapacity and proved misbehavior’ of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India.
3. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of the total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4

Answer: (c)

Explanation: According to the Judges (Inquiry) Act of 1968, the speaker has the authority to approve or reject the motion. The phrase ‘incapacity and proven misbehavior’ of the Supreme Court of India’s Judges is neither defined in the Indian Constitution nor explained in any detail. Statements 3 and 4 are true. 
Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

Q87. The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(c) Indira Gandhi
(d) Morarji Desai

Answer: (a)

Explanation: The 9th Schedule was inserted into the Indian Constitution by the 1st amendment. The Nehru government enacted it on May 10, 1951, to address judicial rulings and declarations, particularly in the chapter on fundamental rights.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

Q88. Consider the following statements:
1. Coal sector was nationalized by the Government of India under Indira Gandhi.
2. Now, coal blocks are allocated on a lottery basis.
3. Till recently, India imported coal to meet the shortages of domestic supply, but now India is self-sufficient in coal production.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a)

Explanation: The Coal Mines (Nationalisation) Act of 1973, signed by Indira Gandhi, entrusted all coal assets to Coal India. Coal blocks are now distributed by auction. India’s coal supply is still reliant on imports.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a). 

Q89. Consider the following statements:
1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’.
2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.
3. The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well-defined in the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a)

Explanation: There is no limitation to the number of offices that can be exempted from this act. It has been changed five times so far. The constitution gives no definition of the office of profit it only mentions it in Articles 102 and 191.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

Q90. Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?
(a) Third Schedule
(b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Ninth Schedule
(d) Twelfth Schedule

Answer: (b)

Explanation: It’s in the 5th Schedule, popularly known as “A Constitution Within a Constitution. It protects indigenous groups’ cultural sovereignty and empowers them.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

Q91. Recently, there was a growing awareness in our country about the importance of Himalayan nettle (Girardinia diversifolia) because it is found to be a sustainable source of
(a) anti-malarial drug
(b) bio-diesel
(c) pulp for the paper industry
(d) textile fiber

Answer: (d)

Explanation: Girardinia diversifolia (Himalayan nettle), a fiber-producing plant, has become a major source of income for those living in the Hindu Kush Himalaya’s isolated mountain settlements.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d). 

92. For the measurement/estimation of which of the following are satellite images/remote sensing data used?
1. Chlorophyll content in the vegetation of a specific location
2. Greenhouse gas emissions from rice paddies of a specific location
3. Land surface temperatures of a specific location

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

Explanation: The visible infrared reflectance qualities of leaves can aid in chlorophyll content remote sensing. At some specific sites, remote sensing is employed to measure greenhouse gas emissions from rice paddies as well as land surface temperature. 
Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

93. Consider the following States:
1. Chhattisgarh
2. Madhya Pradesh
3. Maharashtra
4. Odisha

With reference to the States mentioned above, in terms of the percentage of forest cover to the total area of the State, which one of the following is the correct ascending order?
(a) 2-3-1-4
(b) 2-3-4-1
(c) 3-2-4-1
(d) 3-2-1-4

Answer: (c)

Explanation: The forest cover is about 16% (Maharashtra), 25% (Madhya Pradesh), 32% (Odisha) and 42% (Chhattisgarh).
Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

94. Which of the following statements are correct about the deposits of ‘methane hydrate?
1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits.
2. Large deposits of ‘methane hydrate’ are found in Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor.
3. Methane in the atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after a decade or two.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

Explanation: Methane is found in Arctic Tundra and beneath the seafloor. It gets trapped in sediments under the sea bottom and freezes into a type of water ice known as methane hydrate. The hydrates can degrade if the water and the seafloor get warmer. Methane has a limited lifetime in the atmosphere; after a decade or so, a molecule of methane is oxidized to water and carbon dioxide.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

95. Consider the following:
1. Carbon monoxide
2. Methane
3. Ozone
4. Sulphur dioxide

Which of the above are released into the atmosphere due to the burning of crop/biomass residue?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2, 3, and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 ‘only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (d)

Explanation: Particulate matter, nitrogen oxides, carbon monoxide, sulfur dioxide, lead, mercury, and other harmful air pollutants are all emitted when agricultural crop waste is burned. 
Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

Q96. Consider the following pairs

SeaBordering country
1. Adriatic SeaAlbania
2. Black SeaCroatia
3. Caspian Sea Kazakhstan
4. Mediterranean Sea Morocco
5. Red SeaSyria

Which of the pair given above are correctly matched?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: (b)

Explanation: The countries with coasts on-
1. Adriatic Sea: Albania, Bosnia, Herzegovina, Croatia, Italy, Montenegro, and Slovenia.
2. Black sea: Ukraine, Russia, Georgia, Turkey, Bulgaria, and Romania.
3. Caspian Sea- Kazakhstan, Russia, Azerbaijan, Iran, Turkmenistan
4. Mediterranean Sea- Spain, France, Monaco, Italy, Slovenia, Croatia, Bosnia, Herzegovina, Montenegro, Albania, Greece, Turkey, Syria, Lebanon, Israel, Egypt, Libya, Tunisia, Algeria, and Morocco
5. Red sea- Saudi Arabia, Yemen, Egypt, Sudan, Eritrea, and Djibouti
Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

Q97. Among the following, which one is the largest exporter of rice in the world in the last five years?
(a) China
(b) India
(c) Myanmar
(d) Vietnam

Answer: (b)

Explanation: In 2015, India overtook as the world’s top rice exporter, a position it has held since the years 2016-17 and 2017-18. On average, India is ranked as the world’s largest rice exporter in the previous five years.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

Q98. Consider the following pairs:

Glacier River
1. Bandarpunch Yamuna
2. Bara Shigri Chenab
3. MilamMandakini
4. SiachenNubra
5. ZemuManas

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 5
(d) 3 and 5

Answer: (a)

Explanation: Mandakini flows from the Chorabari Glacier in Uttarakhand. The Zemu Glacier is in the  Eastern Himalayas. The Manas River is a transboundary river that flows between Southern Bhutan and India in the Himalayan foothills.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

Q99. In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate, and triazophos is viewed with apprehension. These chemicals are used as
(a) pesticides in agriculture
(b) preservatives in processed foods
(c) fruit-ripening agents
(d) moisturizing agents in cosmetics

Answer: (a)

Explanation: In India, they are used as insecticides to control insects in a wide range of agricultural crops. These are systemic insecticides, which means they are absorbed by the roots and then distributed throughout the plant’s organs.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

Q100. Consider the following statements:
1. Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India.
2. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of the Ramsar Convention.
3. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

Explanation: According to the rules, a “wetland” is defined as an area of marsh, fen, peatland, or water, including all inland waters such as lakes, reservoirs, tanks, manmade wetlands, as well as the zone of direct influence on wetlands, which is defined as the drainage area or catchment region of the wetlands as determined by the authority. 
Therefore, the correct answer is (c).


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