Class 12 RD Sharma Solutions – Chapter 2 Functions – Exercise 2.1 | Set 2
Question 12: Show that the exponential function f: R → R, given by f(x) = ex is one one but not onto. What happens if the codomain is replaced by Ro+.
Solution:
We have f: R → R, given by f(x) = ex.
Let x,y ϵ R, such that
=> f(x) = f(y)
=> ex = ey
=> e(x-y) = 1 = e0
=> x – y = 0
=> x = y
Hence,
f is one-one.
Clearly range of f = (0, INFINITY) not equals to R.
Hence, f is not onto.
When co-domain is replaced by Ro+ i.e. (0, INFINITY) then f becomes an onto function.
Question 13: Show that the logarithmic function f: Ro+→ R given by f(x) = log(a)x, a>0 is a bijection.
Solution:
We have f: Ro+→ R given by f(x) = log(a)x, a>0.
let x,y ϵ Ro+ such that,
f(x) = f(y)
=> log(a)x = log(a)y
=> log(a)x (x/y) = 0 [log(a)x = 0]
=> x/y = 1
=> x = y
Hence, f is not one-one.
Now, let y ϵ R be arbitrary, then f(x) = y
=> log (a)x = y
=>x = ay ϵ Ro+
Thus for all yϵR there exist x = ay such that f(x) = y.
Hence,
f is onto.
f is one-one.
=> f is bijective.
Question 14: If A = {1,2,3}, show that a one-one function f: A → A must be onto.
Solution:
Since f is one-one, three elements of {1,2,3} must be taken to the 3 different elements of the co-domain {1,2,3} under f. Hence f has to be onto.
Question 15: If A={1, 2, 3}, show that an onto function f: A→A must be one-one.
Solution:
A={1,2,3}
Possible onto functions from A to A can be the following:
(0){(1,1),(2,2).(3,3)
(ii) (1,1),(2,3),(3,2)
(ii){(1,2),(2,2),(3,3)}
(iv){(1,2),(2,1),(3,3)}
(v){(1,3), (2,2),(3,1)]
(vi){(1,3),(2,1),(3,2)
Here, in each function, different elements of the domain have different images.
Therefore,
All the functions are one-one
Question 16: Find the number of all onto functions from the set A = { 1, 2, 3, ….n} to itself.
Solution:
We know that every onto function from A to itself is one-one.
Therefore,
The number of one-one functions=number of bijections =n!
Question 17: Give examples of two one-one functions f1 and f2. From R to R such that f1 + f2: R→ R defined by (f1 + f2)(x) = f1(x) + f2(x) is not one-one.
Solution:
We know that f1: R→ R, given by f1 (x)= x, and f2 (x)=-x are one-one.
Proving f1, is one-one:
Let f1(x)= f1(y)
Implies that x = y
Therefore,
f1 is one-one.
Proving f2 is one-one:
Let f2(x) = f2(y)
Implies that – x=-y
Implies that x = y
Therefore,
f2 is one-one.
Proving (f1 + f2) is not one-one:
Given:(f1+f2)(x)= f1(x)+ f2 (x)= x+(-x) = 0
Therefore,
For every real number x,(f1 + f2)(x)=0
Therefore,
The image of ever number in the domain is same as 0.
Thus, (f1 + f2) is not one-one.
Question 18: Given an example of two surjective functions f1 and f2 from Z to Z such that f1 + f2 is not surjective.
Solution:
We know that f1: R → R, given by f1(x) = x, and f2(x)=-x are surjective functions.
Proving f1 is surjective:
Let y be an element in the co-domain (R), such that f1(x)= y.
f1(x)= y
Implies that x = y, which is in R.
Therefore,
for every element in the co-domain, there exists some pre-image in the domain.
Therefore,
f1 is surjective
Proving f2 is surjective:
Let f2 (x)= y
x = y, which is in R.
Therefore,
for every element in the co-domain, there exists some pre-image in the domain.
Therefore,
f2 is surjective.
Proving (f1+f2) is not surjective:
Given:(f1 + f2)(x) = f1(x)+ f2(x)=x+(-x)=0
Therefore, for every real number x, (f1 + f2)(x) = 0
Therefore, the image of every number in the domain is same as 0.
Implies that Range = {0}
Co-domain = R
Therefore, both are not same.
Therefore, f1+f2 is not surjective.
Question 19: Show that if f1 and f2 are one-one maps, from R to R then the product f1 X f2: R→R defined by (f1 X f2)(x) = f1(x)f2(x) need not be one-one.
Solution:
We know that f: R→ R, given by f1(x) = x, and f2(x) = x are one-one.
Proving f1 is one-one:
Let x and y be two elements in the domain R, such that f1(x) = f1(y)
f1(x) = f1(y)
x = y
Therefore,
f1 is one-one.
Proving f2 is one-one:
Let x and y be two elements in the domain R, such that f2 (x) = f2(y)
f2(x)= f2(y)
Implies that x = y
Therefore,
f2 is one-one.
Proving f1 X f2 is not one-one:
Given:
(f1 X f2)(x) = f1(x) X f2(x) = x * x = x²
Let x and y be two elements in the domain R, such that
(f1 X f2)(x) = (f1 X f2)(y)
Implies that x² = y²
Implies that x = (+-)y
Therefore,
(f1 X f2) is not one-one.
Question 20: Suppose f1 and f2 are non-zero one-one functions from R to R. Is (f1/f2) necessarily one-one? Justify.
Solution:
We know that f1: R→R given by f1(x) = x³ and f2(x)= x are one-one.
Injectivity of f1:
Consider x and y be two elements in the domain R, such that
f1(x)= f1(y)
Implies that x³ = y
x=3√y belongs to R
Therefore,
f1 is one-one.
Injectivity of f2:
Consider x and y be two elements in the domain R, such that
f2(x)= f2(y)
Implies that x = y
x belongs to R
Therefore,
f2 is one-one.
Providing (f1 / f2) is not one-one:
Given that (f1/f2)(x)= = f1(x)/f2(x) = (x³ / x) = x²
Consider x and y be two elements in the domain R, such that
(f1/f2)(x) = (f1/f2)(y)
f2 f2
x² = y²
x= (+-)y
Therefore,
(f1/f2) is not one-one.
Question 21: Given A = {2, 3, 4}, B = {2,5,6,7}. Construct an example of each of the following.
(i) An injective map from A to B.
(ii) A mapping from A to B which is not injective.
(iii)A mapping from A to B.
Solution:
Given A={1,2,3,4}, B = {2,5,6,7}
Let f: A → Bf: A → B be a mapping from A to B f = {(2,5)(3,6)(4,7)}
f is an injective mapping.
Since for every element a € A there is an unique element b € B
Let us define a mapping: A→B given by g = {(2,2)(2,5)(3,6)(4,7)}
g is not an injective mapping.
since the element 2 € A is not uniquely mapped
Since (2,2) and (2,5) both belong to the mapping g, g is not injective
Let us define a mapping h: A→B
h: A → B given by h = {(2,2),(5,3),(7,4)}
h is a mapping from A to B
B to A since the every ordered puts {2,5,7} € B to elements in {2,3,4} € A
Question 22: Show that f: R → R, Given by f(x) = x – [x] is neither one-one nor onto.
Solution:
f:R → R, given by f (x)= x-[x]
Injectivity:
f(x)=0 for all x belongs to Z,
Therefore,
f is not one-one.
Surjectivity:
Range of f = (0,1) not equals to R.
Co-domain of f = R
Both are not same.
Therefore,
f is not onto.
Question 23: Let f:N→N defined by
f(n) = n + 1, if n is odd.
f(n) = n – 1, if n is even. Show that if f is a bijection.
Solution:
Injectivity:
Let x and y be any two elements in the domain (N).
Case-1: Let both x and y be even and
Let x, y belongs to N such that f (x) = f(y)
As, f (x) = f(y)
Implies that x – 1= x-1
Implies that x = y
Case-2: Let both x and y be odd and
Let x, y belongs to N such that f (x)= f (y)
As, f (x)= f (y)
Implies that x +1 = y +1
Implies that x = y
Case-3:Let x be even and y be odd then, x y.
Then,
x+1 is odd and y-1 is even.
Implies that x+1≠ y-1
Implies that f(x) ≠ f(y)
Therefore,
x ≠ y
= f(x) ≠ f(y)
In all the 3 cases,
Therefore,
f is one-one.
Surjectivity:
Co-domain off = {1, 2,3,4,…}
Range of f = {1+1,2 – 1,3+1,4 – 1,…} = {2,1,4, 3,…}={1, 2, 3, 4,…}
Both are same.
Implies that f is onto.
Therefore,
f is a bijection.
Please Login to comment...